Question 1

A galvanic fuel cell oxygen analyzer fails to reach the proper reading when analyzing an FIO2 of 100%.The respiratory care practitioner should:

  1. Continue using the analyzer
  2. Replace the analyzer with a new one
  3. Change the fuel cell
  4. Replace the battery

 

Question 2

A patient is diagnosed with septic shock and has a fever of 105 degrees Fahrenheit. The RCP fails to make a temperature correction to the analyzer. How will this make the ABG analysis inaccurate?

  1. Lower pH
  2. Higher PO2
  3. Lower CO2
  4. Higher pH
  5. Lower PO2

 

Question 3

A patient with kyphoscoliosis performs maximum inspiratory and expiratory maneuvers with the following results:MIP +110 MEP -160. The correct interpretation would be:

  1. The results are normal
  2. The results are invalid and should not be reported
  3. The results are normal on inspiration and abnormal on expiration
  4. The results are normal on expiration and abnormal on inspiration

 

Question 4

A patient with pulmonary fibrosis has a compliance study performed. Which of the following indicate that the esophageal balloon is placed correctly in the esophagus?

  1. Cardiac pulsations are recorded by the pressure transducer
  2. Inspiration causes a negative pressure deflection
  3. Expiration causes a negative pressure deflection
  4. No pressure change occurs during inspiration

 

Question 5

All of the following statements are true concerning the Helium analyzer EXCEPT:

  1. Measures percentage of He
  2. Are safe to use with flammable gases
  3. Are often found in pulmonary function equipment
  4. Makes use of thermal conductivity

 

Question 6

All of the following statements concerning blood-based controls used in the ABG lab are correct EXCEPT:

  1. They require refrigeration
  2. They consist of human red blood cells
  3. They must be ran every 8 hours
  4. They are packaged in 2-3 ml ampoules

 

Question 7

At what lung level should a maximum inspiratory pressure maneuver be performed?

  1. Functional residual capacity
  2. Residual volume
  3. End-tidal inspiration
  4. Total lung capacity

 

Question 8

Correct expressions for the relationship between respiratory rate, tidal volume and minute ventilation include:

  1. VE = Vt Rate
  2. Vt = VE Rate
  3. VE = Rate x Vt
  4. Rate = VE Vt

 

Question 9

Data used for detecting a blood-gas machine that is out of control is:

  1. The + or – 2 standard deviation
  2. The + or – 4 standard deviation
  3. The + or – 1 standard deviation
  4. The + or – 3 standard deviation

 

Question 10

How would you correct an out of control situation for a blood gas analyzer?

  1. Replace the electrode that displays the out of control error
  2. Clean the membrane with the out of control error with a pumice stone
  3. Nothing is required for an out of control situation, continue to use the blood gas analyzer
  4. Remove the blood gas analyzer and replace it with a new one

 

Question 11

It would be appropriate to use the Wright respirometer to measure which of the following parameters?

  1. Tidal volume
  2. Vital capacity
  3. Forced expiratory capacity
  4. Peak expiratory flow rate
  5. Minute volume

 

Question 12

Running the same sample on one or more other blood gas analyzers in the ABG lab to assure accuracy is known as:

  1. Monthly quality assurance
  2. Multiple machine analysis
  3. Proficiency Testing
  4. Preventative maintenance

 

Question 13

The RRT has been asked to measure a patient’s MIP. Which of the following instruments should be selected to obtain this measurement?

  1. Pressure strain-gauge
  2. Pneumotachometer
  3. Pressure manometer
  4. Pressure transducer

 

Question 14

The following data is obtained during quality assurance of a blood gas machine. Mean (normal) values are: PO2 – 100, PCO2 – 50, pH – 7.28. The standard deviation is + or – 2 SD.
PO2 PCO2 pH
Day shift 101 49 7.28
Evening shift 102 53 7.26
Night shift 104 51 7.29
Which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. Data indicates no trouble shooting required on day shift
  2. Data indicates need for trouble shooting of the PCO2 electrode on evenings
  3. Data indicates need for trouble shooting of PO2 electrode on nights.

 

Question 15

Tidal volume and minute ventilation must be determined from a patient that has a measured minute volume of 7.35 L and a respiratory rate of 18/minute. What is this patient’s tidal volume value?

  1. 132 ml
  2. 408 ml
  3. 180 ml
  4. 735 ml

 

Question 16

What should the pulmonary function technologist take into consideration with each test before reporting test results?

  1. Equipment performance
  2. Technologist performance
  3. Age of equipment being used
  4. Patient performance

 

Question 17

When calibration gas analyzers, which of the following should be calibrated to a 0% reading as the first point (percentage)?

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Oxygen
  3. Helium
  4. Carbon dioxide/Carbon monoxide

 

Question 18

When measuring minute ventilation using a Wright’s respirometer:

  1. A pressure manometer is needed to determine values
  2. The number of breaths taken by the patient should be counted during the measuring period
  3. A value obtained by measuring inspiratory volumes will be smaller than expiratory volumes
  4. The tidal volume is collected (measured) for three minutes

 

Question 29

Which agency sets forth standards that must be met to assure accuracy of equipment?

  1. ALA (American Lung Association)
  2. CGA (Compressed Gas Association)
  3. ACCP (American College Chest Physicians)
  4. ATS (American Thoracic Society)

 

Question 20

Which of the following diseases will most likely exhibit an increased compliance?

  1. Pulmonary fibrosis
  2. Chronic bronchitis
  3. Bronchiectasis
  4. Asbestosis
Question 21

Which of the following statements are correct regarding total lung and thoracic compliance?

  1. There is less inspired volume per cmH2O in CLT than in either CL or CT alone
  2. There is more inspired volume per cmH2O in CT than in CL
  3. There is less inspired volume per cmH2O in CT than in CL
  4. There is more inspired volume per cmH2O in CLT than in CT alone

 

Question 22

Which of the following test is used as an indicator of ventilatory inspiratory muscle strength?

  1. Forced vital capacity
  2. Expiratory reserve volume
  3. Maximal inspiratory pressure
  4. Maximal expiratory pressure

 

Question 23

Which of the following types of equipment would enable the measurement of the transpulmonary pressure, which is needed to calculate pulmonary compliance?

  1. Fiber-optic bronchoscope
  2. Intraesophageal balloon
  3. Transcutaneous PO2 electrode
  4. Co-oximeter

 

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT a good indication to perform MIPs and MEPs?

  1. Inability to cough effectively
  2. Myasthenia gravis
  3. Pulmonary hypertension
  4. Amothopic lateral sclerosis

 

Question 25

While working in a PFT lab, you discover that the nitrogen analyzer is not functioning correctly. You would do which of the following?

  1. Go ahead and use the analyzer as long as it is working
  2. Replace the nitrogen analyzer with a helium analyzer
  3. Take the analyzer to Biomedical lab for corrective maintenance
  4. Ask a technician to perform preventative maintenance on the analyzer

 

Question 26

You are a respiratory therapist in charge of the ABG lab. One of your responsibilities is calibration of the gases used by the blood gas machines. The tank containing O2 is a 20% concentration. The barometric pressure is 760 mmHg on this particular day. Calculate the concentration of the O2 in mmHg so that you can compare your readouts to assure proper calibration.

  1. 162 mmHg
  2. 125 mmHg
  3. 158 mmHg
  4. 143 mmHg

 

Question 27

You are calibrating a spirometer with a super syringe, and after injecting 3L of air for three consecutive calibrations; the results are 2.8L, 3.0L, and 3.2L.
Based on these results, the spirometer is considered:

  1. Accurate
  2. Precise
  3. Valid
  4. Reliable

 

Question 28

Which of the following is equal to RV?

  1. FRC – ERV
  2. TLC – VC
  3. VC – IRV
  4. IC – IRV

 

Question 29

Which of the following is equal to IC?

  1. TLC – RV
  2. VC – ERV
  3. RLC – IRV
  4. VT + ERV

 

Question 30

A patient has a VC of 4200 ml, an FRC of 3300 ml, and ERV of 1500 ml. What is the patient’s RV?

  1. 2700 ml
  2. 3700 ml
  3. 1500 ml
  4. 1800 ml

 

Question 31

Results of a pulmonary function study on a patient indicate a VC of 3600 ml, a FRC of 2000 ml, and a RV of 1000 ml. What is the TLC?

  1. 5500 ml
  2. 7000 ml
  3. 4600 ml
  4. 8600 ml

 

Question 32

If VT is 650 ml, ERV is 1100 ml, and RV is 1150 ml; FRC would be equal to:

  1. 3650 ml
  2. 4750 ml
  3. 2250 ml
  4. 2900 ml

 

Question 33

Which of the following would be most consistent with an obstructive disorder?

  1. FEV1/FVC% less than 65% predicted
  2. 15% improvement in bronchodilator challenge
  3. Increased PEFR
  4. TLC values of 55% of predicted

 

Question 34

Compared to predicted normals, a patient has a normal FEV1/FVc ratio, normal FEF 25-75%, but a markedly reduced FVC. Which of the folloiwng is most likely the problem?

  1. A combined restrictive and obstructive disorder is present
  2. A restrictive disorder is present
  3. Poor patient effort during the test procedure
  4. An obstructive disorder is present

 

Question 35

Compared to predicted normals, a patient has a reduced FVC, RV, and TLC, and a reduced FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio. Which of the following is most likely the problem?

  1. Small airways obstruction is present
  2. A restrictive disorder is present
  3. An obstructive disorder is present
  4. Combined restrictive and obstructive disorder is present

 

Question 36

A patient has a prebronchodilator FEV1 value of 2.5 L/sec and a postbronchodilator value of 3,0 L/sec, what is the percent change?

  1. 15%
  2. 30%
  3. 20%
  4. 25%

 

Question 37

Wh ch of the following is the most likely diagnosis on the basis of the following PFT results?
FVC 80% predicted
FEV1 50% predicted
FEV1/FVC% 55% predicted
FEF 25-75% 40% predicted

  1. Silicosis
  2. Kyphoscoliosis
  3. Pneumothoras
  4. Chronic bronchitis

 

Question 38

Which of the following gases are needed to calibrate a N2 analyzer?

  1. 100% O2
  2. 21% O2
  3. 79% N2
  4. 10% N2

 

Question 39

A severly hypothermic patient is brought to the ER. The patient has a temperature of 82 Degrees F, agonal respirations and a heart rate of 30 beats per minute. CPR is initiated and an ABG is ordered. Which of the following inaccurate results would occur if the RCP failied to make a temperature correction to the ABG analyzer?

  1. Higher CO2, and lower O2 and pH thant acutal results
  2. Lower CO2 and O2, higher pH than actual results
  3. Elevated CO2 and O2, lower pH than actual results
  4. Results would not be affected

 

Question 40

When calibrating gas analyzers, which of the following should be calibrated back to a 0% reading as the last point?

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Oxygen
  3. Helium
  4. Carbon dioxide/carbon monoxide

 

Question 41

A medical gas analyzer that is capable of performing breath by breath analysis during a nitrogen wash out study is the:

  1. Mass spectrometry
  2. Infrared analyzer
  3. Nitrogen analyzer
  4. Gas chromatography

 

Question 42

Which of the following types of analyzers would be appropriate to use for measurement of exhaled CO2 when performing a Vd/Vt study at the bedside?

  1. Gas chromatograph
  2. Thermal conductive
  3. Infrared
  4. Wheatstone bridge

 

Question 43

Which of the following is an disadvantage of using the Gas Chromatgraph analzyer

  1. Expensive and hard to maintain
  2. Requires longer time for analysis
  3. Requires a vacuum and an ionization chamber
  4. Can analysis several gases at once

 

Question 44

Which of the following statements are correct regarding airway conductance (Gaw)?

  1. Gaw is the same as Ra
  2. Normal value is 0.36 o 1.70 L/sec/cmH2O
  3. Gaw increases as Raw decreases
  4. It is calculated by pressure difference divided by flowrate

 

Question 45

Which of the following is the correct classification or severity range for a Raw reading of 7.5 cmh2O/L/sec?

  1. Severe Raw
  2. Mild Raw
  3. Moderate Raw
  4. Normal Raw