1. Which of the following is NOT an expected role of a respiratory therapist?
A. promoting lung health and wellness
B. providing patient education
C. assessing the patient’s cariopulmonary health status
D. selling oxygen therapy devices to patients
2. Which of the following sites is closest to core body temp?
A. axillary
B. oral
C. rectal
D. forehead
3. What term is used to describe the chest pain associated with blockage of the coronary arteries?
A. angina
B. myocarditis
C. myalgia
D. infarction
4. What key property of He makes it useful as a therapeutic gas?
A. low solubility
B. chemical inertness
C. low cost
D. low density
5. Under normal physiologic circumstances, how many mililiter of oxygen are capable of combining with 1 g of Hb?
A. 0.003 ml
B. 0.450 ml
C. 0.820 ml
D. 1.34 ml
6. The AARC Code of Ethics holds professionals ro which of following principles? I actively maintaining and improving ones competence II following sound scientific procedures and ethical principles in research III promoting disease prevention and wellness IV striving to improve the access, effcacy and cost of patient care V respecting and protecting the rights of patients they treat
A. II, III, IV, and V
B. I, II, III, and V
C. III, IV, and V
D. I, II, III, IV, and V
7. Which of the following techniquese or procedures should be used to help minimize infection of a tracheotomy stoma? I regular aseptic stoma cleaning II adherence to sterile techniques III regulat change of tracheostomy dressing
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I II and III
8. A physician specifies an incorrect does in a precriptoin for a pwerful bronchodilator drug be given to an asthmatic patient. When teh respiratory therapist gives the prescribed does, the patient suffers a fatal response and dies. based on the priciple of duty, against whom could be suit of negligence be brought? I respiratory therapist II attending physician III dispensing pharmacist
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. I and III
9. The largest percentage of carbon dioxide transported in the blood occurs as which of the follwoing?
A. carbmino-Hb
B. carbonic acid
C. HCO3-
D. physically dissolved carbon dioxide
10. What happens when the temp of blood rises? I the Hb saturation for a given PO2 falls II the HbO2 curve shifts to teh right III the affinity of Hb for oxygen increases
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II only
D. I, II, and III
11. To protect against obstructed or kinked tubing, simple bubble humidifiers incorporate which of the following?
A. HEPA outlet filter
B. pressure relief valve
C. automatic hygrometer
D. electronic alarm system
12. On what does the movement of gases between the lungs and the body tissues mainly depend?
A. active transport
B. gaseous diffusion
C. membrane dialysis
D. membrane transport
13. The removable inner cannula commonly incorporated into modern tracheostomy tube serves which of the following purposes? I aid in routine tube cleaning and tracheostomy care II prevent the tube from slipping into the trachea III provide a patent airway should it become obstructed
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. III only
D. I II and III
14. Which of the following is a method for communicating empathy to your patients?
A. use of touch
B. use of key words
C. use of eye contact
D. all the above
15. To check on the results of a patient’s recent blook work, you would go to which section of the medical record?
A. vital signs sheet
B. lab sheet
C. flowsheet
D. progress notes
16. What is the only major factor limiting the use of pressure-compensated thorpe tube flowmeter?
A. downstream resistance
B. effect of positon (gravity)
C. DISS connector availability
D. use with gases other than O2
17. what is the major contributing factor in the development of postoperative atelectasis?
A. uncontrolled hyperpyrexia
B. central nervous system overstimulation
C. decreased cardiac output
D. repetitive, shallow breathing
18. what is the upper limit of O2 concentratons availavle through tents?
A. 60% to 70%
B. 50% to 60%
C. 40% to 50%
D. 30% to 40%
19. In the standard approach to hospital fires the RACE plan has been suggested. What does the letter “C” stand for in this approach?
A. capture
B. contain
C. call for help
D. collapse
20. an O2 delivery device takes separate pressurized air and O2 sources as input, then mixes thes gases through a precision valve. What does this describe?
A. O2 blending system
B. reservoir system
C. air entrainment system
D. low flow system
21. what is the affect of an elevated intracellular 23DPG concentration?
A. decreases the availability of oxygen to the tissues
B. increases the affinity of Hb for oxygen
C. increases the availability of oxygen to the tissues
D. shifts the HbO2 dissociation curve to the left
22. during properly performed external chest compression on children under 8 years or on large toddlers, how much should teh sternum be compressed?
A. 0,5 inch
B. 1.0 inch
C. 1.5 inch
D. 2.0 inch
23. If you make a mistake when charting a patient treatment, what should you do?
A. make a new entry just below the mistake
B. erase the mistake adn ahve your supervisor countersing it
C. draw a line through the mistake and write “error” above it
D. have your supervisor make the chart correction later
24. a physician wants a stable FIO2 of 0.5 for a newborn infant with severe hypoxemia. Which of the following system would you select?
A. O2 hood with blender and heated humidifier
B. pediatric tent with O2 input of 8L/min
C. O2 hood with blender and unheated humidifier
D. infant incubator with O2 input of 10L/min
25. air for medical use in a hospital should be which of the following? I particle-free II oil-free III dry
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I , II, and III
26. during fiberoptic bronchoscopy a patient’s SpO2 drops from 91% to 87%. which of the following actions would be appropriate? I apply suction through the scope’s open channel II give oxygen through the scope’s open channel III increase the cannula or mask oxygen flow
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I II and III
27. What is the most common route of pathogen transmission in the hospital setting?
A. indirect contact
B. droplet transmission
C. airborne transmission
D. surgical transmission
28. during administration of a continouse positive airway pressure flow mask to a patient with atelectasis you find it difficult to maintain the prescrived airway pressure. which of the following is the most common explanation?
A. system or mask leaks
B. outflow obstruction
C. inadequate system flow
D. inadequate trigger
29. for chest compressions to be effective, in what position must the patient be placed?
A. horizontal prone, on firm surface
B. horizontal supine, on a firms surface
C. horizontal supine, on a soft surface
D. sitting with the neck fully extended
30. which of the following is a true statement about the cause of systemic hypertension in adult patients?
A. the cause is often unknown
B. the cause is often related to poor diet
C. the cause is often related to a lack of exercise
D. the cause is often related to sleep apnea
31. When a practitioner performs a procedure that involves physical contact without the patient’s consent, it can result in what charge?
A. assault
B. negligence
C. battery
D. slander
32. which of the following are potential causes of hypoxia? I decrease in arterial PO2 II decrease in available Hb III decreas in cardiac output
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
33. What will happen when the lung is surgically removed from the thorax?
A. the lung will apper to undergo no change
B. the lung will collapse
C. the lung will expand
D. the response of the lung will depend on its age and pathology
34. What is the chief reason that respiratory care protocols were developed and are currently being used in hospitals throughout North America?
A. enhance proper allocation of repiratory care services
B. decrease patient care costs to hospitals and insurance companies
C. expand patient care skills among respiratory care providers
D. enhance efficiency of respiratory care personnel in providing patient care
E. justify reasons for increasing patient care costs
35. which of the following is FALSE about flow oriented incentive spirometry devices?
A. inspired volume is estimated as product of flow and time
B. motivation is based on keeping the indicator balls elevated
C. they have proved less effective than volumetric systems
D. they provide only an indirect measure of inspired volume
36. which of teh following can provoke a cough? I anesthesia II foreign bodies III infection IV irritating gases
A. II and IV
B. I II and III
C. III and IV
D. II III and IV
37. key consideration in teaching a patient to develop an effective cough regimen includes which of the following? I strengthening of the expiratory muscles II instructin in breathing control III instruction in proper positioning
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I II and III
D. I and III
38. Under what condition can the principle of confidentiality be breached?
A. when the welfare of the community or a vulnerable individual is at stake
B. when the health professional believes that the info is not vital
C. when a patient tells the health professional that there are no secrets
D. when a lawyer tells the health professional that the info must be revealed
39. preliminary planning for IPPB should include which of the following? I evaluating alternative approaches to the patients problem II setting specific individual clinical goals or objectives III conducting a baseline assessment of teh patient
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. I II and III
D. II and III
40. A health professional who withhold the truth from a patient, saying it is for her own good is engaged in what practice?
A. fraud
B. infidelity
C. benevolent deception
D. nonmaleficence
41. lifting heavy objects is best done with which of the following techniques?
A. straight spine, bent legs
B. straight spine, straight legs
C. bent spine, bent legs
D. bent spine, straight legs
42. what is the normal range for systolic blood pressure in the adult patient?
A. 90 to 140
B. 80 to 100
C. 75 to 100
D. 60 to 100
43. what is the proper ratio of external chest compressions to ventilation for infants?
A. 5:1
B. 3:1
C. 15:2
D. 30:5
44. to help open the airways of a conscious adult with complete airway obstruction, what would you do?
A. apply back blows followed by chest thrusts
B. try to ventilate the victim at a high rate
C. decompress the stomach with epigastric pressure
D. apply repeated strong abdominal thrusts
45. patients can control a flutter valves pressure by changing what? patients can control a flutter valves pressure by changing what?
A. their inspiratory flow
B. the angle of he device
C. their expiratory flow
D. the expired volume
46. what is the upper limit of normal for the fasting blood glucose level?
A. 50 mg/dl
B. 85 mg/dl
C. 105 mg/dl
D. 140 mg/dl
47. which of the following forms is carbon dioxide transported by the blood? I chemically combined with proteins II ionized as bicarbonate III simple physical solution
C. II and III
D. I II and III
48. Which of the following parameters should be monitored during ambulation?
A. skin color
B. breathing rate and effort
C. level of consciousness
D. all the above
49. an adult patient receiving cool mist therapy afer extubation begins to develop stridor. which of the following actions would you recommend?
A. change from cool mist to heated aerosol
B. reintubate teh patient immediately
C. administer a racemic epinephrine treatment
D. draw and analyze an aterial blood gas
50. which of the following vavles corresponds most closely to the normal PO2 and PCO2 in the mixed venous blood returning to the lungs from the right side of the heart?
A. PO2= 40 mmHg PCO2= 46 mmHg
B. PO2= 40 mmHg PCO2=100 mmHg
C. PO2= 100 mmHg PCO2 40 mmHg
D. PO2= 100 mmHg PCO2= 46 mmHg

51. which of the following conditions must exist for gas to move between the alveolus and pulmonary capillary?
A. adequate alveolar ventilation (VA)
B. difference in partial pressures
C. normal central nervous system control mechanism
D. sufficient amount of blood hemoglobin
52. which of the following terms is used to describe coughing up blood streaked sputum?
A. hematemesis
B. hemoptysis
C. hemolysis
D. hematoectasis
53. which of the following is LEAST likely to cause tachycardia?
A. fever
B. severe pain
C. hypotension
D. hypothermia
54. when used to control the flow of medical gages to a patient, how is a thorpe tube classified?
A. variable orifice, constant pressure flowmeter device
B. fixed orifice, constant pressure flowmeter device
C. variable orifice, variable pressure flowmeter device
D. fixed orifice, variable pressure flowmeter device
55. what is the most common complication of suctioning?
A. hypoxemia
B. hypotension
C. arrhythmias
D. infection
56. all of the following indicate an inability to adequately protect the airway except:
A. wheezing
B. coma
C. lack of gag reflex
D. inability to cough
57. A therapist who says “please explain that to me again” to a patient during an interview is using what interpersonal communication techinque?
A. clarifying
B. paraphrasing
C. perception checking
D. reflecting feelings
58. which of the following gases would diffuse fastest across the alveolar-capillary membrane?
A. air
B. carbon dioxide
C. oxygen
D. nitrogen
59. compared with translaryngeal intubation, the advantage of tracheostomy include all of the following except:
A. greater patient comfort
B. reduced risk of bronchial intubation
C. no upper airway complications
D. decreased frequency of aspiration
60. What organization is responsible for credentialing respiratory therapists?
E. all the above
61. Information about a patient’s nearest kin, physician, and initial diagnosis can be found in which section of the medical record?
A. history and physical exam
B. admission sheet
C. physician’s orders
D. consultations sheet
62. In which of the following conditions will erythrocyte concentraton of 23DPG be decreased?
A. anemia
B. banked blood
C. high pH
D. hypoxemia
63. what is the usual method of monitoring the remaing contents in a gas-filled cylinder?
A. weigh the cylinder
B. read the pressure gauge
C. compute the gas density
D. read the cylinder label
64. What was the primary duty of the first inhalation therapists?
A. provide airway care
B. support oxygen therapy
C. aerosol therapy to patients
D. maintain patients on mechanical ventilation
65. tracheal stenosis occurs in as many as 1 in 10 patients after prolonged tracheostomy. at what sites does this stenosis usually occur? I cuff site II tip of the tube III stoma site
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I II and III
66. to clean a cylinder valve outlet of foreign material, what should you do?
A. wipe the valve outlet with a light oil
B. quickly opne then close the valve
C. blow into the valve outlet a few times
D. wipe the valve outlet wiht an alcohol swab
67. in theory how does PEP help to move secretions into the larger airways? I filling underaerated segments through collateral ventilation II preventing airway collapes during exiration III causing bronchodilation during inspiration
A. I II and III
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I and II
68. heat-moisture exchangers are mainly used to do what?
A. warm and humidify gases delivered to the trachea via ventilator circuits
B. humidify therapeutic gases delivered at high flows to the lower airway
C. provide extra humidity for dry therapeutic gaes delivered to the upper airway
69. While palpating the chest of a patient who repeats the words “ninety-nine” you note an area of increased tactile frmitus over teh left lower love/ which of the following could explain this finding? I pneumothorax II emphysema III pneumonia
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I II and III
70. why are zone valves incorporated into a hospital’s central gas piping systems? I to terminate O2 delivery to an area in case of fire II to allow selective maintenance without shutting the system down III to allow variable pressure reduction throughout the system
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I II and III
71. in the absence of neck or facial injuries, what is teh procedure of choice to establish a paten tracheal airway in an emergency?
A. surgical tracheotomy
B. orotracheal intubation
C. nasotraccheal intubation
D. cricothyrotomy
72. what are some key patient consideratons in selecting O2 therapy equipment? I type of airway II severity and cause of the hypoxemia III age group I stability of the minute ventilation
A. II and IV
B. I II and III
C. III and IV
D. I II III and IV
73. what is the minimum amount of time that blood must take for pulmonary capillary transit for equilibration of oxygen to occur across alveolar-capillary membrane?
A. 0.15 sec
B. 0.25 sec
C. 0.35 sec
D. 0.45 sec
74. to prevent hypoxemia when suctioning a patien, the respiratory care practitioner should initially do which of the following?
A. mannually ventilate the patient with a resuscitator
B. preoxygenate the patient with 100% oxygen
C. give the patient a bronchodilator treatment
D. have the patient hyperventilate for 2 mins
75. before the suctioning of a patient, auscultation reveals coarse breath sounds during both inspiration and expiration. after suctioning, the coarseness disappears, but expiratory wheezing is heard over both lung fields. waht is most likely the problem?
A. secretions are still present and the patient should be suctioned again
B. the patient has hyperactive airways and has developed bronshospasm
C. a pneumothorax has developed and the patient needs a chest tube
D. the patient has developed a mucous plug and should undergo bronchoscopy
76. which of the following mechanisms do all compressed gas cylinder use to avoid excessively high buildup of cylinder pressure?
A. internal convection cooling mechanism
B. pressure-relief mechanism on the valve stem
C. automatic cylinder breech mechanism
D. pressure-relief mechanism on the cylinder body
77. how long will the apneic patient lake to die without intervention?
A. 1 min
B. 3 to 5 min
C. 4 to 6 min
D. 10 to 20 min
78. even in healthy individuals, abnormal circultaion Hb can be
A. less than 15%
B. between 15% to 40%
C. between 40% and 50%
D. greater than 50%
79. which of the following approaches may be used in “weaning a patient form a tracheostomy tube? I using profressively smaller tubes II using a fenestrated tube III using a tracheostomy button
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I II and III
80. When a small, usually imperceptible current is allowed to bypass the skin and follow a direct , low resistance pathway into the body, which of the following conditions exists?
A. macroshock hazard
B. grounding hazard
C. isolation hazard
D. microshock hazard
81. how is the vast majority of oxygen carried in the blood?
A. as bicarbonate ion (HCO3)
B. as carbamino compounds
C. chemically combined with Hb
D. in physical solution
82. what is the max recommended range for tracheal tube cuff pressure?
A. 15 to 20 mmHg
B. 20 to 25 mmHg
C. 25 to 30 mmHg
D. 30 to 35 mmHg
83. Given the following blood parameters, compute the total oxygen content (dissolved + HbO2) of teh blood in ml/dl: Hb=18 PO2= 40 mmHg SO2= 73%
A. 16.5 ml/dl
B. 17.7 ml/dl
C. 18.6 ml/dl
D. 19.5 ml/dl
84. What disease is associated with a barrel chest?
A. emphysema
B. heart failure
C. pneumonia
D. pleural effusions
85. you are preparing to conduct a complex transport of a patient receiving O2, and you expect to have to alter O2 flows during the trasport. Which of the following devices would best meet your needs?
A. uncompensated thorpe tube
B. flow restrictor
C. compensated thorpe tube
D. bourdon gauge
86. at body temp how much oxygen will physically dissolve in plasma at a PO2 of 40 mmHg?
A. 0.12 ml/dl
B. 0.20 ml/dl
C. 0.30 ml/dl
D. 1.34 g/dl
87. which of the following acutely ill patients is LEAST likely to benefit from the application of chest physical therapy?
A. patient with acute lober atelectasis
B. patient with copious amounts of secretions
C. patient with an acute exacerbation of COPD
D. patient with low V/Q due to unilateral infiltrates
88. What term is used to describe a RBC count that is above normal values? What term is used to describe a RBC count that is above normal values?
A. leukocytosis
B. leukopenia
C. anemia
D. polycythemia
89. a very common application of teh adjustable pressure-reducing valve is in combination with which of the following?
A. flow restrictor
B. Thorpe tube flowmeter
C. bourdon gauge
D. uncompensated flowmeter
90. which of the following are potential desirable outcomes of IPPB therapy? I improved oxygenation II increased cough and secration clearance III improved breath sounds IV reduced dyspnea
A. II and IV
B. I II and III
C. III and IV
D. I II III and IV
91. what term is used to describe shortness of breath in the upright position?
A. orthopnea
B. platypnea
C. eupnea
D. apnea
92. a cooperative an alert postoperative patient taking food orally requires a small increment in FIO2, to be provided continuosly. Precise FIO2 concentratons are not need. Which of the following devices would best achieve this end?
A. simple mask
B. air-entrainment mask
C. nasal cannula
D. nonrebreathing mask
93. a patient exhibits persistent stridor after a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure. which of the following would recommend?
A. aerosol therapy with albuterol
B. administration of a benzodiazepine
C. aerosol therapy with racemic epinephrine
D. administration a narcotic antagonist
94. in setting up a postural drainage treatment for a postoperative patient, wich of teh following information would you try to obtain from the patient’s nurse? I patient’s medication schedule II patient’s meal schedule III location of surgical incision
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I II and III
95. Durign chest physical therapy a patient has an episode of hemoptysis. which of the following actions would be appropriate at this time?
A. put the patient in a sitting position and have him or her cough strenuously
B. place the patient in a head dow position and call the nurse
C. immediately perform nasotracheal suctioning of the patient
D. stop therapy sit the patient up give O2 and contact the physician
96. when determining a need for O2 therapy, the respiratory therapist should asses which of the following? I neurologic status II pulmonary status III cardiac status
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II, and III
97. Key barriers to effective interpersonal communication include all of the following except:
A. use of symbols or words with different meanings
B. value systems that are differnet or not accepted
C. similar perceptions of the problem
D. feelings of personal insecurity by one or both parties
98. what is the proper rate of external chest compressions for children up to puberrty?
A. 80/min
B. 100/min
C. 120/min
D. 140/min
99. What artery is most often used to asses arterial blood pressure? What artery is most often used to asses arterial blood pressure?
A. femoral
B. radial
C. ulnar
D. brachial
100. for which of the following purposes is a tracheal button appropriate? I facilitate secreation removal II protet the airways from aspiration III relieve airway obstruction IV aid in positive pressure ventilation
A. I and III
B. II and IV
C. III and IV
D. I II III and IV
101. Which of the following test is used to evaluate renal function?
A. creatinine
B. protein level
C. serum enzymes
D. sweat chloride
102. Calculate the approximate PAO2 given the following conditions R= 0.8 FIO2=.40 PB= 770 mmHg PACO2= 31 mmHg
A. 100 mmHg
B. 135 mmHg
C. 250 mmHg
D. 723 mmHg

103. which of the following methods can help to reduce the likelihood of atelectasis due to tracheal suctioning? I limit the amount of negative pressure used II hyperinflate teh patient before and after the procedure III suction for a short a period of time as possible
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I II and III
104. a patient recovering from abdominal surgery is having difficulty developing an effective cough. which of the following actions would you recommend to aid this patient in generating a more effective cough? I coordinating coughing with pain medication II using the forced expiration technique III supplying manual epigastric compression IV splinting the operative site
A. I II and IV
B. I II and III
C. III and IV
D. II III and IV
105. to minimize laryngeal swelling a physician orders ” continuous aerosol therapy” after teh extubation of a patient. which of the following specific approaches would you recommend?
A. heated mist therapy through a jet nebulizer and aerosol mask
B. cool mist therapy through a jet nevulizer and aerosol mask
C. oxygen therapy through a vent-mask and bubble humidifier
D. racemic epinephrine or saline through a small jet nebulizer
106. All of the following are critical elements of a patient’s past medical history except:
A. childhood diseases
B. prior major illnesses or surgery
C. marital status
D. drugs and immunizations
107. A pulmonary specialist has been called in by an internist to examine a patient and help make a diagnosis. Where in the patient’s medical record would you look for the pulmonary specialist’s report?
A. progress sheet
B. consulations sheet
C. physician’s orders
D. history and physical exam
108. equipment required for patient support and monitoring during a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure includes all of the following except:
A. pulse oximeter
B. oxygen cannula
C. electrocardiographic monitor
D. capnometer
109. what is teh normal range of negative pressure to use when suctioning children?
A. 60 to 80 mmhg
B. 80 to 100 mmhg
C. 100 to 120 mmhg
D. 150 to 200 mmhg
110. Soft muffled sounds heard mainly during inspiration over the periphertal lung parenchyma best describe which of th following breath sounds?
A. vesicular
B. bronchovesicular
C. bronchial
D. tracheal
111. What test is useful for evaluating the blood-clotting ability of your patient?
A. red blood cell count
B. platelet count
C. neutrophil count
D. hematocrit
112. what is the name of the external landmark that identifies the point at which the trachea branches into the right and left mainstem bronchi?
A. angle of louis
B. cricoid cartilage
C. suprasternal notch
D. xiphoid process
113. which of the following statements is false about the potential for aspiration in patient with cuffed tracheal tubes?
A. periodic oropharyngeal suctioning can help to minimize aspiration
B. aspiration is least likely in spontaneously breathing patients
C. the methylene blue test can help detect leakage-type aspiration
D. aspiration is more likely with tracheostomy tubes than with endotracheal tubes
114. which of the following should be charted after completing a postural drainage treatment? I amount and consistency of sputum produced II patient tolerance of procedure III positions used (including time) IV any untoward effects observed
A. I II and III
B. II and IV
C. I II III and IV
D. III and IV
115. what general condition requires airway management? I airway compromise II respiratory failure III need to protect the airway
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I II and III
116. which of the following is/are key factor(s) determining the extent of harm caused by an electrical current? I. duration for which the current is applied II. path the current takes through the body III. amount of current flowing through the body
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. I and III
117. which of the following terms describes teh power potential behind electrical energy?
A. voltage
B. current
C. Ohms
D. resistance
118. hazards and complications of bland aerosol therapy include all of the following except:
A. bronchospasm
B. overhydration
C. infection
D. hemoconcentration
119. the measured pressure in a gas-filled cylinder is equivalent to which of the following?
A. its filling density divided by the cylinder gas factor
B. gas temp times its coefficient of expansion
C. gas density divied by the density of are at STPD
D. the force requried to compress its volume within the cylinder
120. which of the following factors are most critical in determining when a patient can be ambulated? I. willingness of patient II. stability of vital signs III. absence of severe pain
A. II and III
B. I and II
D. I and III
121. the diaphragm is innervated by which of the following nerves?
A. glossopharyngeal
B. phrenic
C. seventh cranial
D. vagus
122. a 27 year old woman received form the emergency department is on a nasal cannula at 5L/min. Approximately what FIO2 is this patient receiving?
A. 28%
B. 32%
C. 35%
D. 40% 

123. as the amount of oxygen that dissolves in teh plasma increases, what is it directly proportional to?
A. its partial pressure
B. its solubility coeffiecient
C. minute ventilation
D. temperature
124. Which of the following is NOT a cause of leukopenia?
A. chemotherapy
B. bone marrow disease
C. radiation therapy
D. antibiotics
125. physiologic effects of hyperbaric oxygen therapy include all of the following execpt:
A. neovascularization
B. bubble reduction
C. enhanced immune function
D. sysemic vasodilation
126. if the total hemoglobin content (Hb + HbO2) of a sample of blood is 20 g/dl and the oxyhemoglobin (HbO2) content is 15 g/dl, what is the HbO2 saturation?
A. 17%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 83%
127. which of the following is NOT a purpose of the interview?
A. to collect diagnostic info
B. to establish a rapport with the patient
C. to identify plans of payment
D. to identify the effect of therapy
128. ventilation without perfusion is classified as
A. deadspace
B. alveolar shunt
C. oxygenation
D. venous admixture
129. you enter the room of a patient who is receiving nasal O2 throgh a bubble humidifier at 5L/min. you immediately notice that the humidifier pressure relief is popping off. which of the following actions whould be most appropriate in this situation?
A. check and tighten all connections
B. replace the humidifier with a new one
C. look for a crimped or twisted deliver tubing
D. decrease the flow rate to 2L/min
130.  carbon dioxide diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane about how many times faster than oxygen?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
131. an adult man on ventilatory support has just been intubated with a 7 mm oral endotracheal tube equipped with a high residual volume, low pressure cuff. when sealing the cuff to achieve a minimal occluding volume you not a cuff pressure of 45 cm H2O. what is most likely the problem?
A. the tube chosen is too small for the patient
B. the cuff pilot balloon and line are obstructed
C. the tube is in the right mainstem bronchus
D. the cuff has herniated over the tube tip
132. a patient receiving 35% O2 through an air entrainmetn mask set at 6L/min input flow becomes tachypneic. Simultaneously, you notice that the SpO2 ha fallen from 91% to 87%. which of the following action would be most appropriate in this situaton?
A. switch the patient to a 40% air entrainment mask
B. increase the device’s input flow to 10L/min
C. switch the patient to a 28% air entrainment mask
D. decrease teh device’s input flow to 4L/min
133. a patient with a tracheal airway exhibits sever respiratory distress. on quick examination, you notice the complete absence of breath sounds and no gas flowing through the airway. what is most likely the problem?
A. partial tube obstruction
B. right sided pneumothorax
C. complete tube obstruction
D. vocal cord paralysis
134. decrease in body temp shifts the HbO2 curve to teh left
A. True
B. False
135. Today, respiratory care educational programs in the US are accredited by what organzation?
A. National board for respiratory care NBRC
B. American Association for Respiratory Care AARC
C. Committee on Accreditation for Respiratory Care CoARC
D. Joint Review Committee for Respiratory Therapy Education JRCRTE
136. Which of the following is/are a potential are of risk to patients receiving respiratory care?
A. movement or ambulation
B. electrical shock
C. fire hazards
D. all the above
137. what is the function of the thorax?
A. facilitate digestion
B. heat humidify and filter gases
C. protect the vital organs
D. vocalization
138. what part of the lung has the most perfusion?
A. apexes
B. middle love
C. base
D. lung perfusion in the same lung throughout
139. Nonverbal communication includes all of the following except:
A. gesture
B. touch
C. discussion
D. space
140. directed coughing is useful in helping to maintain bronchial hygiene in all of the following cases except:
A. bronchiectasis
B. acute asthma
C. cystic fibrosis
D. spinal cord injury
141. To determine the amount of urine excreted by a patient in the last 24 hours, you would go to which of the section of the medical record?
A.vital signs sheet
B. laboratory sheet
C. nurses’ notes
D. intake and output sheet
142. which of the following conditions alter normal mucociliary clearance? I bronchospasm II cystic fibrosis III ciliary dyskinesia
A. I II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III
143. what is the primary purpose of indexed connector systems?
A. to prevent inadvertent misconnections between equipment
B. to speed making connections between equipment
C. to allow US equipment to “mate” with foreign equipment
D. to provide universal connections among all equipment
144. Which of the following statements is false about patient ambulation?
A. ambulation is necessary for normal body functioning
B. patients must be carefully monitored during ambulation
C. chairs or emergency supports must available during ambulation
D. patients with IV lines should not be ambulated
145. which of the following is an indication for the use of heliumO2 mixtures?
A. large airway obstruction
B. small airway obstruction
C. restrictive diseases
D. physiologic shunting
146. which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of sterile gloves in the hospital setting?
A. they should be worn for all invasive procedures
B. they should not be used as a substitute for handwashing
C. the same pair can be used on numerous patients if nonivasive procedures are done
D. they may have small invisible defects that cause contamination of the user’s hands
147. When a relatively high current is appleied externally to the skin, which of the following conditions exists?
A. macroshock hazard
B. grounding hazard
C. microshock hazard
D. isolation hazard
148. Which of the following is NOT predicted to be a growing trend in respiratory care for the future?
A. greater use of respiratory therapy protocols
B. increased need for patient assessment skills
C. increased involvement in smoking cessation programs
D. increased use of intravascular lines for patient monitoring
149. what is the approximate normal CaO2- CvO2 in a healthy adult at rest?
A. 5 ml/dl
B. 15 ml/dl
C. 20 ml/dl
D. 250 ml/dl
150. when oxygen falls short of cellular needs hypoxia occurs.. What are the factors that contribute to this outcome I the arterial blood oxygen content is decreased II cardiac output or perfusion is decreased III abnormal cellular functino prevents proper uptake of oxygen IV all the above
A. I
B. I and III
151. the time avaiable for diffusion in the lung is mainly a funciton of wich of the following?
A. inspired oxygen concentration
B. level of VA
C. rate of pulmonary blood flow
D. functional residual capacity (FRC)