1.  Which of the following is NOT an expected role of a respiratory therapist?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  which of the following sites is closest to core body temp?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  What term is used to describe the chest pain associated with blockage of the coronary arteries?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  What key property of He makes it useful as a therapeutic gas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  under normal physiologic circumstances, how many mililiter of oxygen are capable of combining with 1 g of Hb?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  The AARC Code of Ethics holds professionals ro which of following principles? I actively maintaining and improving ones competence II following sound scientific procedures and ethical principles in research III promoting disease prevention and wellness IV striving to improve the access, effcacy and cost of patient care V respecting and protecting the rights of patients they treat
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  which of the following techniquese or procedures should be used to help minimize infection of a tracheotomy stoma? I regular aseptic stoma cleaning II adherence to sterile techniques III regulat change of tracheostomy dressing
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  A physician specifies an incorrect does in a precriptoin for a pwerful bronchodilator drug be given to an asthmatic patient. When teh respiratory therapist gives the prescribed does, the patient suffers a fatal response and dies. based on the priciple of duty, against whom could be suit of negligence be brought? I respiratory therapist II attending physician III dispensing pharmacist
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  the largest percentage of carbon dioxide transported in the blood occurs as which of the follwoing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  what happens when the temp of blood rises? I the Hb saturation for a given PO2 falls II the HbO2 curve shifts to teh right III the affinity of Hb for oxygen increases
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  to protect against obstructed or kinked tubing, simple bubble humidifiers incorporate which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  On what does the movement of gases between the lungs and the body tissues mainly depend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  the removable inner cannula commonly incorporated into modern tracheostomy tube serves which of the following purposes? I aid in routine tube cleaning and tracheostomy care II prevent the tube from slipping into the trachea III provide a patent airway should it become obstructed
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  Which of the following is a method for communicating empathy to your patients?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  To check on the results of a patient’s recent blook work, you would go to which section of teh medical record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  what is the only major factor limiting the use of pressure-compensated thorpe tube flowmeter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  what is the major contributing factor in the development of postoperative atelectasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  what is the upper limit of O2 concentratons availavle through tents?
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  In the standard approach to hospital fires the RACE plan has been suggested. What does the letter “C” stand for in this approach?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  an O2 delivery device takes separate pressurized air and O2 sources as input, then mixes thes gases through a precision valve. What does this describe?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  what is the affect of an elevated intracellular 23DPG concentration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  during properly performed external chest compression on children under 8 years or on large toddlers, how much should teh sternum be compressed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  If you make a mistake when charting a patient treatment, what should you do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  a physician wants a stable FIO2 of 0.5 for a newborn infant with severe hypoxemia. Which of the following system would you select?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  air for medical use in a hospital should be which of the following? I particle-free II oil-free III dry
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  during fiberoptic bronchoscopy a patient’s SpO2 drops from 91% to 87%. which of the following actions would be appropriate? I apply suction through the scope’s open channel II give oxygen through the scope’s open channel III increase the cannula or mask oxygen flow
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  What is the most common route of pathogen transmission in the hospital setting?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  during administration of a continouse positive airway pressure flow mask to a patient with atelectasis you find it difficult to maintain the prescrived airway pressure. which of the following is the most common explanation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  for chest compressions to be effective, in what position must the patient be placed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  which of the following is a true statement about the cause of systemic hypertension in adult patients?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  When a practitioner performs a procedure that involves physical contact without the patient’s consent, it can result in what charge?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  which of the following are potential causes of hypoxia? I decrease in arterial PO2 II decrease in available Hb III decreas in cardiac output
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  What will happen when the lung is surgically removed from the thorax?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  What is the chief reason that respiratory care protocols were developed and are currently being used in hospitals throughout North America?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
35.  which of the following is FALSE about flow oriented incentive spirometry devices?
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  which of teh following can provoke a cough? I anesthesia II foreign bodies III infection IV irritating gases
A.
B.

C.
D.
37.  key consideration in teaching a patient to develop an effective cough regimen includes which of the following? I strengthening of the expiratory muscles II instructin in breathing control III instruction in proper positioning
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  Under what condition can the principle of confidentiality be breached?
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  preliminary planning for IPPB should include which of the following? I evaluating alternative approaches to the patients problem II setting specific individual clinical goals or objectives III conducting a baseline assessment of teh patient
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  A health professional who withhold the truth from a patient, saying it is for her own good is engaged in what practice?
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  lifting heavy objects is best done with which of the following techniques?
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  what is the normal range for systolic blood pressure in the adult patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  what is the proper ratio of external chest compressions to ventilation for infants?
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  to help open the airways of a conscious adult with complete airway obstruction, what would you do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  patients can control a flutter valves pressure by changing what?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  what is the upper limit of normal for the fasting blood glucose level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  which of the following forms is carbon dioxide transported by the blood? I chemically combined with proteins II ionized as bicarbonate III simple physical solution
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  Which of the following parameters should be monitored during ambulation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  an adult patient receiving cool mist therapy afer extubation begins to develop stridor. which of the following actions would you recommend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  which of the following vavles corresponds most closely to the normal PO2 and PCO2 in the mixed venous blood returning to the lungs from the right side of the heart?
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  which of the following conditions must exist for gas to move between the alveolus and pulmonary capillary?
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.  which of the following terms is used to describe coughing up blood streaked sputum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.  which of the following is LEAST likely to cause tachycardia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  when used to control the flow of medical gages to a patient, how is a thorpe tube classified?
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.  what is the most common complication of suctioning?
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.  all of the following indicate an inability to adequately protect the airway except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  A therapist who says “please explain that to me again” to a patient during an interview is using what interpersonal communication techinque?
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  which of the following gases would diffuse fastest across the alveolar-capillary membrane?
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  compared with translaryngeal intubation, the advantage of tracheostomy include all of the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  What organization is responsible for credentialing respiratory therapists?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
61.  Information about a patient’s nearest kin, physician, and initial diagnosis can be found in which section of the medical record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  In which of the following conditions will erythrocyte concentraton of 23DPG be decreased?
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  what is the usual method of monitoring the remaing contents in a gas-filled cylinder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.  What was teh primary duty of the first inhalation therapists?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  tracheal stenosis occurs in as many as 1 in 10 patients after prolonged tracheostomy. at what sites does this stenosis usually occur? I cuff site II tip of the tube III stoma site
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.  to clean a cylinder valve outlet of foreign material, what should you do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  in theory how does PEP help to move secretions into the larger airways? I filling underaerated segments through collateral ventilation II preventing airway collapes during exiration III causing bronchodilation during inspiration
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  heat-moisture exchangers are mainly used to do what?
A.
B.
C.
69.  While palpating the chest of a patient who repeats the words “ninety-nine” you note an area of increased tactile frmitus over teh left lower love/ which of the following could explain this finding? I pneumothorax II emphysema III pneumonia
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  why are zone valves incorporated into a hospital’s central gas piping systems? I to terminate O2 delivery to an area in case of fire II to allow selective maintenance without shutting the system down III to allow variable pressure reduction throughout the system
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.  in the absence of neck or facial injuries, what is teh procedure of choice to establish a paten tracheal airway in an emergency?
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.  what are some key patient consideratons in selecting O2 therapy equipment? I type of airway II severity and cause of the hypoxemia III age group I stability of the minute ventilation
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.  what is the minimum amount of time that blood must take for pulmonary capillary transit for equilibration of oxygen to occur across alveolar-capillary membrane?
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.  to prevent hypoxemia when suctioning a patien, the respiratory care practitioner should initially do which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.  before the suctioning of a patient, auscultation reveals coarse breath sounds during both inspiration and expiration. after suctioning, the coarseness disappears, but expiratory wheezing is heard over both lung fields. waht is most likely the problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.  which of the following mechanisms do all compressed gas cylinder use to avoid excessively high buildup of cylinder pressure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.  how long will the apneic patient lake to die without intervention?
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.  even in healthy individuals, abnormal circultaion Hb can be
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.  which of the following approaches may be used in “weaning a patient form a tracheostomy tube? I using profressively smaller tubes II using a fenestrated tube III using a tracheostomy button
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.  When a small, usually imperceptible current is allowed to bypass the skin and follow a direct , low resistance pathway into the body, which of the following conditions exists?
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.  how is the vast majority of oxygen carried in the blood?
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.  what is the max recommended range for tracheal tube cuff pressure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.  Given the following blood parameters, compute the total oxygen content (dissolved + HbO2) of teh blood in ml/dl: Hb=18 PO2= 40 mmHg SO2= 73%
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.  What disease is associated with a barrel chest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.  you are preparing to conduct a complex transport of a patient receiving O2, and you expect to have to alter O2 flows during the trasport. Which of the following devices would best meet your needs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.  at body temp how much oxygen will physically dissolve in plasma at a PO2 of 40 mmHg?
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.  which of the following acutely ill patients is LEAST likely to benefit from application of chest physical therapy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
88.  What term is used to describe a RBC count that is above normal values?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.  a very common application of teh adjustable pressure-reducing valve is in combination with which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.  which of the following are potential desirable outcomes of IPPB therapy? I improved oxygenation II increased cough and secration clearance III improved breath sounds IV reduced dyspnea
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.  what term is used to describe shortness of breath in the upright position?
A.
B.
C.
D.
92.  a cooperative an alert postoperative patient taking food orally requires a small increment in FIO2, to be provided continuosly. Precise FIO2 concentratons are not need. Which of the following devices would best achieve this end?
A.
B.
C.
D.
93.  a patient exhibits persistent stridor after a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure. which of the following would recommend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.  in setting up a postural drainage treatment for a postoperative patient, wich of teh following information would you try to obtain from the patient’s nurse? I patient’s medication schedule II patient’s meal schedule III location of surgical incision
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.  Durign chest physical therapy a patient has an episode of hemoptysis. which of the following actions would be appropriate at this time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.  when determining a need for O2 therapy, the respiratory therapist should asses which of teh following? I neurologic status II pulmonary status III cardiac status
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.  Key barriers to effective interpersonal communication include all of the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.  what is the proper rate of external chest compressions for children up to puberrty?
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.  What artery is most often used to asses arterial blood pressure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.  for which of the following purposes is a tracheal button appropriate? I facilitate secreation removal II protet the airways from aspiration III relieve airway obstruction IV aid in positive pressure ventilation
A.
B.
C.
D.
101.  Which of the following test is used to evaluate renal function?
A.
B.
C.
D.
102.  Calculate the approximate PAO2 given the following conditions R= 0.8 FIO2=.40 PB= 770 mmHg PACO2= 31 mmHg
A.
B.
C.
D.
103.  which of the following methods can help to reduce the likelihood of atelectasis due to tracheal suctioning? I limit the amount of negative pressure used II hyperinflate teh patient before and after the procedure III suction for a short a period of time as possible
A.
B.
C.
D.
104.  a patient recovering from abdominal surgery is having difficulty developing an effective cough. which of the following actions would you recommend to aid this patient in generating a more effective cough? I coordinating coughing with pain medication II using the forced expiration technique III supplying manual epigastric compression IV splinting the operative site
A.
B.
C.
D.
105.  to minimize laryngeal swelling a physician orders ” continuous aerosol therapy” after teh extubation of a patient. which of the following specific approaches would you recommend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
106.  All of the following are critical elements of a patient’s past medical history except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
107.  A pulmonary specialist has been called in by an internist to examine a patient and help make a diagnosis. Where in the patient’s medical record would you look for the pulmonary specialist’s report?
A.
B.
C.
D.
108.  equipment required for patient support and monitoring during a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure includes all of the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
109.  what is teh normal range of negative pressure to use when suctioning children?
A.
B.
C.
D.
110.  Soft muffled sounds heard mainly during inspiration over the periphertal lung parenchyma best describe which of th following breath sounds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
111.  What test is useful for evaluating the blood-clotting ability of your patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
112.  what is the name of the external landmark that identifies the point at which the trachea branches into the right and left mainstem bronchi?
A.
B.
C.
D.
113.  which of the following statements is false about the potential for aspiration in patient with cuffed tracheal tubes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
114.  which of the following should be charted after completing a postural drainage treatment? I amount and consistency of sputum produced II patient tolerance of procedure III positions used (including time) IV any untoward effects observed
A.
B.
C.
D.
115.  what general condition requires airway management? I airway compromise II respiratory failure III need to protect the airway
A.
B.
C.
D.
116.  which of the following is/are key factor(s) determining the extent of harm caused by an electrical current? I. duration for which the current is applied II. path the current takes through the body III. amount of current flowing through the body
A.
B.
C.
D.
117.  which of the following terms describes teh power potential behind electrical energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
118.  hazards and complications of bland aerosol therapy include all of the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
119.  the measured pressure in a gas-filled cylinder is equivalent to which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
120.  which of the following factors are most critical in determining when a patient can be ambulated? I. willingness of patient II. stability of vital signs III. absence of severe pain
A.
B.
C.
D.
121.  the diaphragm is innervated by which of the following nerves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
122.  a 27 year old woman received form the emergency department is on a nasal cannula at 5L/min. Approximately what FIO2 is this patient receiving?
A.
B.
C.
D.
123.  as the amount of oxygen that dissolves in teh plasma increases, what is it directly proportional to?
A.
B.
C.
D.
124.  Which of the following is NOT a cause of leukopenia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
125.  physiologic effects of hyperbaric oxygen therapy include all of the following execpt:
A.
B.
C.
D.
126.  if the total hemoglobin content (Hb + HbO2) of a sample of blood is 20 g/dl and the oxyhemoglobin (HbO2) content is 15 g/dl, what is the HbO2 saturation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
127.  which of the following is NOT a purpose of the interview?
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.  ventilation without perfusion is classified as
A.
B.
C.
D.
129.  you enter the room of a patient who is receiving nasal O2 throgh a bubble humidifier at 5L/min. you immediately notice that the humidifier pressure relief is popping off. which of the following actions whould be most appropriate in this situation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
130.  carbon dioxide diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane about how many times faster than oxygen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
131.  an adult man on ventilatory support has just been intubated with a 7 mm oral endotracheal tube equipped with a high residual volume, low pressure cuff. when sealing the cuff to achieve a minimal occluding volume you not a cuff pressure of 45 cm H2O. what is most likely the problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
132.  a patient receiving 35% O2 through an air entrainmetn mask set at 6L/min input flow becomes tachypneic. Simultaneously, you notice that the SpO2 ha fallen from 91% to 87%. which of the following action would be most appropriate in this situaton?
A.
B.
C.
D.
133.  a patient with a tracheal airway exhibits sever respiratory distress. on quick examination, you notice the complete absence of breath sounds and no gas flowing through the airway. what is most likely the problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
134.  decrease in body temp shifts the HbO2 curve to teh left
A.
B.
135.  Today, respiratory care educational programs in the US are accredited by what organzation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
136.  Which of the following is/are a potential are of risk to patients receiving respiratory care?
A.
B.
C.
D.
137.  what is the function of the thorax?
A.
B.
C.
D.
138.  what part of the lung has the most perfusion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
139.  Nonverbal communication includes all of the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.  directed coughing is useful in helping to maintain bronchial hygiene in all of the following cases except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
141.  To determine the amount of urine excreted by a patient in the last 24 hours, you would go to which of the section of the medical record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
142.  which of the following conditions alter normal mucociliary clearance? I bronchospasm II cystic fibrosis III ciliary dyskinesia
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.  what is the primary purpose of indexed connector systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
144.  Which of the following statements is false about patient ambulation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
145.  which of the following is an indication for the use of heliumO2 mixtures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
146.  which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of sterile gloves in the hospital setting?
A.
B.
C.
D.
147.  When a relatively high current is appleied externally to the skin, which of the following conditions exists?
A.
B.
C.
D.
148.  Which of the following is NOT predicted to be a growing trend in respiratory care for the future?
A.
B.
C.
D.
149.  what is the approximate normal CaO2- CvO2 in a healthy adult at rest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
150.  when oxygen falls short of cellular needs hypoxia occurs.. What are the factors that contribute to this outcome I the arterial blood oxygen content is decreased II cardiac output or perfusion is decreased III abnormal cellular functino prevents proper uptake of oxygen IV all the above
A.
B.
C.
D.
151.  the time avaiable for diffusion in the lung is mainly a funciton of wich of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.  Which of the following is NOT an expected role of a respiratory therapist?
A.
B.
C.
D.