152. Which of the following is NOT one the five key recommended components of an infection control program in the hospital setting?
A. development
B. surveillance
C. investigation
D. reporting

 

153. a patient with a tracheal airway exhibits signs of tube obstruction. which of the following are possible causes of this obstruction? I the tube cuff has herniated over the tip of the tube II the tube is obstructed by a mucus plug or secretions III the tube is kinked, or the patient is biting the tube IV the tube orifice is impinging on the tracheal wall
A. II and IV
B. III and IV
C. I II and III
D. I II III and IV

 

154. which of the following should be charted in the patient’s medical record after completion of an IPPB treatment? I results of pre and post treatment assessment II any side effects III duration of therapeutic session
A. II and III
B. I and III
C. I and II
D. I II and III

 

155. which of the following does NOT increase the affinity of Hb for oxygen?
A. decreased 23DPG
B. decreased PCO2
C. increased pH
D. increased temp

 

156. What is the term for a civil wrong committed against an individual or property, fo which a court provides a remedy in the form of damages?
A. tort
B. misdemeanor
C. felony
D. litigation

 

157. Inhalation of dry gases can do which of the following? I increase viscosity of secretions II impair mucociliary motility III increase airway irritability
A. I and II
B. III
C. I and III
D. all the above

 

158. to avoid the risk of aspiration after a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure, what would recommend that the patient do?
A. be placed in the supine trendelenburg position for 2 hours
B. remain in a sitting position and NPO until sensation returns
C. receive additional aerosolized lidocaine by nebulizer
D. be continuously monitored for oxygenation through pulse oximetry

 

159. To determine the most recent medical status of a patient whom you are about to start treating, you would go to which section of the medical record?
A. progress sheet
B. nurses’ notes
C. physician’s order
D. history and physical exam

 

160. what is the normal range for pulse pressure?
A. 20 to 35
B. 30 to 60
C. 30 to 40
D. 30 to 60

 

161. HIPAA was established in 1996 to set standards related to sharing confidential health history information about patients. What does the letter “P” stand for?
A. privacy
B. portabiliy
C. patient
D. protection
E. people

 

162. Which of the following abnormalities should the practitioner be on the lookout for during inspection of the extremities? I digital clubbing II peripheral cyanosis III pedal edema IV impaired capillary refill V low peripheral skin temp
A. II, III, IV, and V
B. I, III and IV
C. III, IV, and V
D. I, II, III, IV and V

 

163. Which of the following best represents the partial pressures of all gases in the normally ventilated and perfused alveolus when breathing room air at sea level?
A. PO2= 40 PCO2= 100 PN2= 573 PH20= 47
B. PO2= 100 PCO2= 40 PN2= 573 PH20= 47
C. PO2= 100 PCO2= 40 PN2= 713 PH2O= 47
D. PO2= 149 PCO2= 40 PN2= 573 PH2O= 47

 

164. while reviewing the chart of a patient receiving postural drainage therapy, you notice that the patient tend to undergo mild desaturation during. which of the following would you recommend to manage this problem?
A. increase the patient’s FIO2 during therapy
B. discontinue the postural drainage therapy entirely
C. discontinue the percussion and vibration only
D. decrease the frequency of treatments

 

165. all of the following are goals of bronchial hygiene therapy except:
A. reverse the underlying disease process
B. help mobilize retained secretion
C. improve pulmonary gas exchange
D. reduce the work of breathing

 

166. all of the following are considered bronchial hygiene therapies except:
A. postural drainage and percussion
B. incentive spirometry
C. positive airway pressure
D. percussion vibration and oscillation

 

167. ___________ is the medical name for low level of oxygen in blood
A. hypoxia
B. hypoventilation
C. hypoxemia
D. hypochondria

168. which of the following “layers” must be traversed by gases moving across teh alveolar-capillary membrane? I alveolar epithelial membrane II capillary endothelial membrane III interstitial space IV transbronchial radial tethering mechanisms
A. I, II, and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II and III
D. I, II, III, and IV

 

169. department of transportation (DOT) regulations require compressed gas cylinder to be hydrostatically tested for leaks and expansion every how often?
A. 1 to 2 years
B. 3 to 5 years
C. 6 to 8 years
D. 5 to 10 years

 

170. physiologic effects of inhaled nitric oxide include all of the following except:
A. recruitment of collapsed alveoli
B. improved blood flow to ventilated alveoli
C. decreased pulmonary vascular resistance
D. reduced intrapulmonary shunting

 

171. to ensure adequate humidification for a patient with an artificial airway, inspired gas at the proximal airway should be 100% saturated with water vapor and at which of the following temp?
A. 32 to 35
B. 37 to 40
C. 30 to 32
D. 40 to 42

 

172. what term is used to describe difficulty breathing in the reclining position?
A. orthopnea
B. platypnea
C. eupnea
D. apnea

 

173. The total CO2 value is linked to what electrolyte in the blood serum?
A. sodium
B. potassium
C. bicarbonate HCO3-
D. chloride

 

174. what is the key difference between small compressed gas cylinders and their larger counterparts?
A. small gas cylinders do not undergo regular DOT testing
B. small gas cylinders are always filler to lower pressures
C. small gas cylinders cannot be used for anesthetic gases
D. small gas cylinders use a yoke connector

 

1b75. tracheal airways increase the incidence of pulmonary infections for all of the following reasons except:
A. lower levels of humidification
B. increased aspiration of pharyngeal material
C. contaminated equipment or solutions
D. ineffective clearance through a cough

 

176. a patient recovering from anesthesia after abdominal surgery is having difficulty developing an effective cough/ which of the following phases of the cough reflex is primarily affected in this patient?
A. irritation
B. inspiration
C. compression
D. expulsion

 

177. which of the following is false about invasive versus noninvasive monitoring?
A. invasive procedures require insertion of a device into the body
B. lab analysis of gas exchange is usually noninvasive in nature
C. physiologic monitoring can be either invasive or noninvasive
D. invasive procedures provide more accurate data but carry greater risks

 

178. after coming on a patient with complete obstruction of an oral endotracheal tube, your efforts to relieve the obstruction by moving the patient’s head and neck and deflating the cuff both fail. what should be your next step?
A. call for an emergency tracheotomy
B. apply manual positive pressure
C. immediately extubate the patient
D. try to pass a suction catheter

 

179. in which of the following conditions should fiberoptic bronchoscopy NOT be performed if the risks outweigh the potential benefits? I uncorrected bleeding disorders II presence of lung abscess III refractory hypoxemia IV unstable hemodynamic status
A. II and III
B. II and IV
C. I III and IV
D. I II III and IV

 

180. what is the normal range of PAO2-PaO2 for healthy young adults breathing room air?
A. 5 to 10 mmHg
B. 10 to 20 mmHg
C. 20 to 30 mmHg
D. 50 to 60 mmHg

 

181. the first heart sound is created primarily by which of the following?
A. closure of the semilunar valves
B. opening of the semilunar valves
C. opening of the atrioventricular valves
D. closure of the atrioventricular valves

 

182. if you have to deliver O2 to a patient directly from a bedside outlet station, which of the following devices would you select?
A. thorpe tube flowmeter
B. bourdon type gauge
C. pressure-reducing valve
D. medical gas regulator

 

183. which if the following is the only absolute contraindication of turning?
A. when the patient cannot or will not change body position
B. when poor oxygenation is associated with unilateral lung disease
C. when the patient has or is at high risk for atelectasis
D. when the patient has unstable spinal cord injuries

 

184. you are about to suction a female patient who has an 8mm(internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. what is the max size catheter you would use in this case?
A. 8 Fr
B. 10 Fr
C. 12 Fr
D. 14 Fr

 

185. To determine any recent trends in a patient’s pulse, respiration, or blood pressure, you would go to which section fo the medical record?
A. progress sheet
B. nurses’ notes
C. anesthesia record
D. vital signs sheets

 

186. hemoglobin’s affinity for carbon monoxide is more than ___________ times greater than oxygen
A. 20
B. 100
C. 200
D. 50

 

187. what does a positive cuff leak test indicate?
A. the patient has significant upper airway edema
B. the patient’s neuromuscular function is adequate to protect the lower airway
C. the patient is at minimal risk for upper airway obstruction
D. the patient’s muscle strength will provide an effective cough

 

188. you have been asked to monitor a patient who has just been extubated. which of the following parameter would you monitor? I color II breath sounds III vital signs IV inspiratory force
A. I II and III
B. II and IV
C. III and IV
D. II III and IV

 

189. Which of the following is NOT associated with diaphoresis?
A. fever
B. severe stress
C. acute anxiety
D. hemoptysis

 

190. Which of the following conditions must be met for a fire to occur? Is temp high enough for combustion II presence of oxygen III presence of flammable material
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II, and III

 

191. which of the following arteries should be palpated in pulseless adults and children older than 1 year of age?
A. brachial
B. radial
C. carotid
D. femoral

 

192. Which of the following factors has minimal or no impact on the effectiveness of the patient’s cough?
A. lung recoil
B. airway resistance
C. lung volume
D. pulmonary vascular resistance

 

193. what is the indexed safety system for threaded high-pressure connections between large compressed gas cylinders and their attachments?
A. PISS
B. DISS
C. ASSS
D. CGA system

 

194. which of the following would indicate a need for O2 therapy for an adult or child? I SaO2 less than 90% II PaCO2 greater than 45 mmHg III PaO2 less than 60 mmHg
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I,II and III
D. I and III

 

195. what is the most important component in the oxygen transport system?
A. dissolved oxygen in ml/dl
B. HCO3-
C. Hb
D. PaO2

 

196. What term is used to describe an RBC count that is below normal values?
A. leukocytosis
B. leukopenia
C. anemia
D. polycythemia

 

197. which of the following is NOT a hazard or complication of postural drainage therapy?
A. cardiac arrhythmias
B. increased intracranial pressure
C. acute hypotension
D. pulmonary barotraumas

 

198. what is the purpose of a cuff on an artificial tracheal airway?
A. seal off and protect the lower airway
B. stabilize the tube and prevent its movement
C. provide a means to determine tube position via radiograph
D. help clinicians determine the depth of tube insertion

 

199. your patient has an abnormal sensorium. Which of the following is most likely true?
A. he knows his name
B. he is confused about where he is
C. he is aware of the correct day
D. he knows the name of the hospital he has been taken to.

 

200. hypoxia is best defined as a condition in which what occurs?
A. blood Hb are less than normal (15g/dl)
B. the arterial PCO2 is greater than normal (45mmHg)
C. the arterial PO2 is greater than normal (100mmHg)
D. tissue oxygen delivery is inadequate to meet cellular needs

 

201. which ethical principle obliges a respiratory therapist to uphold a patients’ right to refuse a treatment?
A. autonomy
B. veracity
C. role Fidelity
D. beneficence

 

202. which of the following is/are advantages of the digital blood pressure measurement devices?
A. they reduce the risk of human error
B. they reduce the cost
C. they have an alarm
D. they measure blood pressure and stroke volume

 

203. which of the following injuries are NOT seen with tracheostomy tubes? I tracheomalacia II tracheal stenosis III glottic edema IV vocal cord granulomas
A. I and IV
B. II and IV
C. III and IV
D. I II and III

 

204. what is the standard size for endotracheal or tracheostomy tube adapters?
A. 22 mm external dimeter
B. 15 mm external diameter
C. 15 mm internal diameter
D. 22 mm internal diameter

 

205. which of the following conditions are associated with the chronic production of large volumes of sputum? I bronchiectasis II pulmonary fibrosis III cystic fibrosis IV chronic bronchitis
A. I III and IV
B. II and IV
C. I II III and IV
D. III and IV

 

206. What is the primary purpose of grounding all electrical equipment used in teh hospital setting?
A. to prevent the dangerous bulid-up of voltage in equipment
B. to make the equipment more secure and less likely to break down
C. to avoid excessive energy cost
D. to convert electrical power from DC to AC

 

207. what are some types of passover humidifiers? I simple reservoir II membrane III wick
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. all the above

 

208. Normal heart sounds are created primarily by which of the following?
A. opening of the heart valves
B. rush of blood during systole
C. closing of the heart valves
D. electrical conduction in the heart

 

 

209. What device is used to reduce the pressure and control the flow of compressed medical gas?
A. flowmeter
B. reducing valve
C. bourdon gauge
D. regulator

 

210. complications of tracheal suctioning include all of the following except:
A. bronchospasm
B. hyerinflation
C. mucosal trauma
D. elevated intracranial pressure

 

211. which of the following statements are true about adult external cardiac compression?
A. compressions should displace the sternum at least 3 to 4 inches
B. compression should occur at a rate of 100 per minute
C. compression time should be less than upstroke phase
D. compression can be safely interrupted for up to 50 seconds

 

212. after removal of an oral endotracheal tube, a patient exhibits hoarseness and stridor that do not resolve with racemic epinephrine treatments. what is the most likely problem?
A. vocal cord paralysis
B. tracheoesophageal fistula
C. glottic edema or cord inflammation
D. tracheomalacia

 

213. therapeutic indications for fiberoptic bronchoscopy include which of the following? I inspect the airways II retrieve foreign bodies III obtain specimens for analysis IV aid endotracheal intubation
A. II and IV
B. III and IV
C. I II and III
D. I II III IV

 

214. which of the following is/are necessary for normal airway clearance? I patent airway II functional mucociliary escalator III an effective cough
A. I and II
B. I II and III
C. II and III
D. II

 

215. What is the most common technique used to measure CO2 in respiratory gases?
A. infrared absorption
B. mass spectroscopy
C. photoacoustics
D. raman scattering

 

216. what cylinder factor is used to compute the duration of flow for a 22cu/ft O2 or air E cylinder?
A. .28
B. 1.34
C. 2.41
D. 3.14

 

217. a patient has a whole-body oxygen consumption of 320 ml/min and a measured CaO2- CvO2 of 8 ml/dl. what is the cardiac output?
A. 3.2 L/min
B. 4 L/min
C. 5 L/min
D. 7 L/min

 

218. You must connect a large-volume nebulizer to a bedside compressed-air outlet through a flowmeter. You have only standard O2 flowmeters available. which of the following actions is appropriate?
A. connect the O2 flowmeter to the air outlet with piping tape
B. use an O2 to air DISS adapter to join the flowmeter and outlet
C. connect the O2 flowmeter to the air outlet with a petroleum jelly seal
D. try to cross thread an O2 flowmeter directly on the air outlet

 

219. What ethical principle can be used to justify the pain that might occur in drawing blook form a patient for a diagnostic test?
A. nonmaleficence
B. benevolent deception
C. do no harm
D. double effect

 

220. what is the primary indication for tracheal suctioning?
A. presence of pneumonia
B. presence of atelectasis
C. ineffective coughing
D. retention of secretions

 

221. Which of the following organs is the most sensitive to the effects of electrical shock?
A. liver
B. heart
C. kidneys
D. lungs

 

222. what is the purpose of the additional side port on most modern endotracheal tubes?
A. protect the airway against aspiration
B. help ascertain proper tube position
C. minimize mucosal trauma during insertion
D. ensure gas flow if the main port is blocked

 

223. which of the following is NOT a common cause of tachypnea?
A. hypoxemia
B. exercise
C. narcotic overdoes
D. metabolic acidosis

 

224. what is the measurement of CO2 in respiratory gases called?
A. oximetry
B. capnometry
C. optometry
D. barometry

 

225. indications for pulse oximetry include all of the following except the need
A. to assess changes in HbO2 during certain procedures
B. for measurements of abnormal Hb
C. to comply with external regulations or recommendations
D. to monitor the adequacy of HbO2 saturation

 

226. which of the following types of artificial airways are inserted through the larynx? I pharyngeal airways II tracheostomy tube III nasotracheal tubes IV orotracheal tubes
A. I and IV
B. I II and III
C. III and IV
D. I II III and IV

 

227. In a person breathing room air, if the alveolar PCO2 rises from 40 to 70 mmHg, what would you expect?
A. PAO2 to fall by about 30 mmHg
B. PAO2 to fall by about 40 mmHg
C. PAO2 to rise by about 30 mmHg
D. PAO2 to rise by about 40 mmHg

 

228. the affinity of Hb for carbon monoxide is approximately how many times greater than its affinity for oxygen?
A. 10 to 50
B. 50 to 90
C. 100 to 190
D. 200 or greater

 

229. for gas exchange to occur between alveoli and pulmonary capillaries a difference in partial pressure must exist
A. True
B. False

 

230. which of the following can help to minimize the likelihood of mucosal trauma during suctioning? I use as large a catheter as possible II rotate the catheter while withdrawing III use as rigid a catheter as possible IV limit the amount of negative pressure
A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. III and IV
D. I II and IV

 

231. what is the first step in basic life support?
A. open the airway
B. activate the EMS system
C. determine unresponsiveness and breathing
D. restore circulation

 

232. what can properly applied O2 therapy decrease? I ventilatory demand II work of breathing III cardiac output
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. I and III

 

233. Carbon dioxide is most commonly elevated due to significant pulmonary disease that results in small tidal volumes
A. false
B. true

 

234. all of the following would indicate a successful outcome for postural drainage therapy except:
A. decreased sputum production
B. normalization in ABGS
C. improved breath sounds
D. improvement in chest radiograph

 

235. which of the following is not a potential hazard of IPPB?
A. increased cardiac output
B. respiratory alkalosis
C. pulmonary barotrauma
D. gastric distention

 

236. The elements of a POMR entry would include which of the following? I patient’s subjective complaints and concerns II objective data gathered by the health professional III assessment of the subjective and objective data IV plan to address the identified problems
A. I, II, and III
B. I and III
C. I II III and IV
D. I III and IV

 

237. which factors affect oxygen loading and unloading of hemoglobin? I pH of the blood II body temp III abnormal Hb IV patient’s respiratory rate
A. all the above
B. I II and III
C. I III IV
D. IV

 

238. In what space is the patient interview conducted by the clinician?
A. social space
B. personal space
C. intimate space
D. critical space

 

239. key points to consider in planning fiberoptic bronchoscopy include which of the following? I equipment preparation II premedication III airway preparation IV monitoring
A. II and IV
B. III and IV
C. I II and III
D. I II III and IV

 

240. a patient receiving 3L/min O2 through a nasal cannula has a measured SpO2 of 93% and no clinical signs of hypoxemia. At this point, what should you recommend?
A. decreasing the flow to 2L/min and rechecking the SpO2
B. maintaining the therapy as is and rechecking the SpO2 on the next shift
C. increasing the flow to 4L/min and rechecking the SpO2
D. discontinuing the O2 therapy

 

241. to ensure a stable FIO2 under varying patient demands, what must an O2 delivery system do?
A.have a reservoir system at least equal to the Vt
B. provide all the gas needed by the patient during inspiration
C. maintain flow that is at least equal to teh patient’s peak flows
D. be able to deliver any O2 concentration from 21% to 100%

 

242. The lowest PO2 would normally be found in what location?
A. arterial blood
B. atmospheric air
C. cells
D. venous blood

 

243. which of the following clinical finding indicate the development of atelectasis? I opacified areas on the chest x-ray film II inspiratory and expiratory wheezing III tachypnea IV diminished or bronchial breath sounds
A. I III and IV
B. I II III V
C. I and IV
D. I III and IV

 

244. administration of dry gases at flows exceeding 4L/min can cause which of the following? I structural damage II heat loss III water loss
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. all the above

 

245. as tissue pH increases to the left loading of oxygen occurs
A. True
B. False

 

246. Which of the following is considered the primary source of infection in the health care setting?
A. medical equipment
B. humans
C. food and water
D. carpet

 

247. you start a COPD patient on a nasal O2 cannula at 2L/min/ what is the max time that should pass before assessing this patient’s PaO2 or SaO2?
A. 2 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 72 hours

 

248. which of the following factor will decrease the FIO2 delivered by a low flow O2 system? I short inspiratory time II fast rate of breathing III lowe O2 input IV large minute ventilation
A. II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, III, and IV

 

249. a patient receiving nasal oxygen at 3L/min complains of nasal dryness and irritation. Which of the following action would be appropriate?
A. recommending that the flow be decreased to 2L/min
B. adding a humidifier to the delivery system
C. recommending that the flow be increased to 4L/min
D. switching to a simple mask at 3L/min

 

250. which of the following is FALSE about the simple O2 mask?
A. it has no valving system or reservoir bag
B. it can easily deliver high FIO2 values
C. it requires a minimal input flow of 5L/min
D. it functions as a variable-performance system

 

251. The second heart sound is created primarily by which of the following?
A. closure of the semilunar valves
B. opening of the atrioventricular valves
C. closure of the atrioventricular valves
D. opening of the semilunar valves

 

252. Where are the majority of respiratory therapists employed?
A. skilled nursing facilities
B. diagnostic laboratories
C. hospitals or acute care settings
D. outpatient physician offices

 

253. which of the following statements describe a normal adult lung?
A. the left lung is bisected by two fissures
B. the left lung has an upper a middle and lower lobe
C. the right lung has only an upper and lower lobe
D. the right lung has three lobes and two fissures

 

254. which of the following positions is ideal for IPPB therapy?
A. semi fowler’s
B. standing
C. supine
D. prone

 

255. which of the following statements about CO2 is FALSE?
A. it does not support animal life
B. it is a flammable gas
C. it is odorless and colorless
D. it is heavier than air

 

256. the pressure of O2 or air in a bulk supply system is reduced to what standard working pressure?
A. 10 psig
B. 14 psig
C. 25 psig
D. 50 psig

 

257. to accurately determine the remaining contents of a liquid-filled CO2 cylinder, what would you do?
A. multiply the pressure by the cylinder factor
B. divide the pressure by the cylinder factor
C. weigh the contents of the cylinder
D. empty the cylinder while timing its flow

 

258. which of the outcomes would indicate improvement in a patient previously diagnosed with atelectasis who has been receiving incentive spirometry? I improved PaO2 II decreased respiratory rate III improved chest radiograph IV decreased forced vital capacity V tachycardia
A. I II and III
B. I III and IV
C. I II III IV and V
D. III IV and V

 

259. which of the following airway clearance techniques would recommend for a 15-month-old infant with cystic fibrosis?
A. postural drainage percussion and vibration
B. positive expiratory pressure therapy
C. mechanical insufflation exsufflation
D. intrapulmonary percussive ventilation

 

260. what is the primary goal of humidity therapy?
A. decrease airway reactivity to cold
B. maintain normal physiologic conditions
C. deliver drugs to the airway
D. reduce upper airway inflammation

 

261. all of the following techniques can be used to improve one’s listening skills except:
A. resist distractions
B. maintain composure and control emotions
C. keep an open mind
D. judge the sender’s delivery, not the content

 

262. what is the normal range of negative pressure to use when suctioning an adult patient?
A. 100 to 120 mmhg
B. 80 to 100 mmhg
C. 60 to 80 mmhg
D. 20 to 30 mmhg

 

263. during single rescuer adult CPR, what is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilation?
A. 30: 1
B. 30:2
C. 5:1
D. 5:2

 

264. At a PaO2 of 65 mmHg, what is the approx saturation of Hb with oxygen?
A. 73%
B. 80%
C. 90%
D. 97%

 

265. oximetry is the measurement of blood hemoglobin saturation using what technique?
A. electrochemical dissociation
B. photoplethysmography
C. photochemical reactions
D. spectrophotometry

 

266. which of the following equipment is NOT needed to perform nasotracheal suctioning?
A. suction kit
B. laryngoscope with MacIntosh and Miller blades
C. oxygen delivery system
D. bottle of sterile water or saline solution

 

267. you are about to suction a 10-year-old patient who has a 6mm(internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. what is the max size of catheter that you would use in this case?
A. 6 Fr
B. 8 Fr
C. 10 Fr
D. 14 Fr

 

268. correct instruction in the technique of incentive spirometry should include which of the following?
A. use of accessory muscles
B. diaphragmatic breathing at slow to moderate flows
C. panting at volume approaching total lung capacity
D. use of accessory muscles at low inspiratory flows

 

269. soon after endotracheal tube extubation, an adult patient exhibits a high pitched inspiratory noise, heard without a stethoscope. which of the following actions would you recommend?
A. STAT heated aerosol treatment with saline
B. STAT racemic epinephrine aerosol treatment
C. careful observation of the patient for 6 hours
D. immediate reintubation via the nasal route

 

270. What term is used to describe a sodium concentration that is below normal in the blood serum?
A. hypokalemia
B.hyponatremia
C. hypocalcemia
D. hypochloremia

 

271. What is the technical term for secretions from the tracheobronchial tree that have not been contaminated by the mouth?
A. sputum
B. phlegm
C. mucus
D. pus

 

272. which of the following beside methods can absolutely confirm proper endotracheal tube position in the trachea?
A. auscultation
B. observation of chest movement
C. tube length
D. fiberoptic laryngoscopy

 

273. an alert and cooperative 28 year old women with no prior history of lung disease under went cesarean section 16 hours earlier. her xray film currently is clear. which of the following approaches to preventing atelectasis would you recommend for this patient?
A. incentive spirometry
B. PEEP therapy
C. deep breathing exercises
D intermittent positive pressure breathing therapy

 

274. which of the following are contraindications for continuous CPAP therapy? I hemodynamic instability IIhypoventilation III facial trauma IV low intracranial pressure
A. I and III
B.II and III
C. I II and III
D. II II and IV

 

275. what does the presence of stridor indicate?
A. lower airway obstruction
B. increased secretions in the large airways
C. upper airway obstruction
D. bronchial spasm

 

276. in performing the sustained maximal inspiration maneuver during incentive spirometry should be instructed to sustain the breath for at least how long?
A. 10 to 15 sec
B. 5 to 10 sec
C. 3 to 5 sec
D. 1 to 2 sec

 

277. what is a rare but serious complication associated with endotracheal tube extubation?
A. bradycardia
B. aspiration
C. infection
D. laryngospasm

 

278. perfusion without ventilation is classified as
A. deadspace
B. alveolar shunt
C. oxygenation
D. venous admixture

 

279. what is the optimal breathing pattern for IPPB treatment of atelectasis?
A. slow, deep breaths held at end inspiration
B. rapid deep breaths help at end inspiration
C. slow shallow breaths held at end inspiration
D. rapid shallow breaths held at end inspiration

 

280. you are assisting a physician in teh emergency care of a patient with maxillofacial injuty who will require short term ventilatory support. which of the following airway approaches would you recommend?
A. intubate via the oral route
B. insert an oropharyngeal airway
C. perform an emergency tracheotomy
D. intubate via the nasal route

 

281. the highest PCO2 levels are found in what location?
A. arterial blood
B. atmopheric air
C. cells
D. venous blood

 

282. what is the most common sign associated with the transient glottic edema or vocal cord inflammation that follows extubation?
A. difficulty in swallowing
B. wheezing
C. orthopnea
D. hoarseness

 

283. what is the recommended dilution level of bleach according to the CDC for cleaning up blood spills?
A. 1:1
B. 1:5
C. 1:10
D. 1:20

 

284. all of the following are typical of high-frequency external chest wall compression therapy except:
A. 30 min therapy sessions
B. oscillations at 5 to 25 Hz
C. one to six sessions per day
D. long inspiratory oscillations

 

285. for patients receiving incentive spirometry, what is the minimum number of sustained maximal inspiration per hour that you would recommend?
A. 25 to 30
B. 15 to 20
C. 5 to 10
D. 1 to 2

 

286. What type of white blood cell increases in response to viral infections?
A. neutrophils
B. eosinophils
C. lymphocytes
D. monocytes

 

287. which of the following patient groups should be considered for lung expansion therapy using IPPB? I patients with clinically diagnosed atelectasis who are not responsive to other therapies II patients at high risk for atelectasis who cannot perform other methods III all ovese patients who have undergone abdominal surgery
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I II and III

 

288. To find out what drugs or intravenous fluids a patient has received recently, you would go to which section of the medical record?
A. progress sheet
B. nurses’s notes
C. physician’s orders
D. medication record

 

289. What is the most common cause of hypothermia?
A. exposure to cold environment
B. head injury
C. stroke
D. thyroid gland dysfunction

 

290. during two people CPR applied to an adult, what is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilation?
A. 5:2
B. 30:1
C. 5:1
D. 30:2

 

291. what is the most common cause of airway obstruction in unconscious patients?
A. foreign body lodged in the upper airway
B. oral or nasal secretion blocking the pharynx
C. tongue falling back into the pharynx
D. severe spasm of the laryngeal musculature

 

292. what does V/Q mismatch have the biggest impact on?
A. carbon dioxide elimination
B. dissolved HCO3-
C. oxygenation
D. pH

 

293. The sweat chloride level is used to diagnose which of the following disorders?
A. asthma
B. cystic fibrosis
C. hyperthyroidism
D. hepatitis

 

294. What term is used to describe a WBC count that is below normal values?
A. anemia
B. thrombocytopenia
C. leukopenia
D. hyponatremia

 

295. a patient is receiving O2 through a nonrebreathing mask set at 8L/min. you notice that the mask’s reservoir bag collapses completely before the end of each inspiration. Which of the following actions is appropriate in this case?
A. change to a partial rebreather
B. decrease the liter flow
C. increase the liter flow
D. change to a simple mask

 

296. which of the following features incorporated into most modern endotracheal tubes assist in verifying proper tube placement? I. length markings on the curved body of the tube II. embedded radiopaque indicator near the tube tip III. additional side port near the tube tip
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I II and III

 

297. Continuous SpO2 monitoring is indicated in all of the following situations except:
A. exercise testing
B. sleep studies
C. bronchoscopy
D. O2 therapy

 

298. What voluntary accrediting agency monitors quality in respiratory care departments?
A. JRCRTE
B. AARC
C. FDA
D. JCAHO
E. AMA

 

299. why should the respiratory therapist perform a blood pressure assessment fairly quickly?
A. the procedure is expensive
B. the procedure cuts off blood flow to the forearm temporarily
C. the respiratory therapist has other procedures to do
D. the procedure is billed by the time involved

 

300. which of the following is FALSE about heated humidifier condensate?
A. it can block or obstruct the delivery circuit
B. it must be treated as contaminated waste
C. it requires that circuits be drained frequently
D. it poses minimal infection risk

 

301. in which of the following patients would you consider modifying any head down positions used for postural drainage? I a patient with unstable blood pressure II a patient with a cerebrovascular disorder III a patient with systemic hypertension IV a patient with orthopnea
A. I II III and IV
B. II and IV
C. II III and IV
D. II and IV

 

302. a physician orders positive expiratory pressure therapy for a 14-year-old child with cystic fibrosis. all of the following responses should be monitored on the patient except:
A. peak flow or forced expiratory volume in 1 sec per forced vital capacity percentage
B. patient’s minute volume
C. quantity and character of sputum
D. breath sounds

 

303. Which of the following are unacceptable practices in medical recordkeeping? I specifying when you will return to provide patient therapy II providing your own interpretation of a patient’s symptoms III recording the patient’s complaints and general behavior IV charting several separate tasks under a single chart entry
A. II and IV
B. I and II
C. I and IV
D. I II and IV

 

304. if blood flow increases, such as heavy exercise, capillary transit time can decrease as low was
A. .75 sec
B. .45 sec
C. .35 sec
D. .25 sec