152. Which of the following is NOT one the five key recommended components of an infection control program in the hospital setting?

A.
B.
C.
D.
<style=”font-size: 15px; margin: 0px; padding: 0px;”>153. a patient with a tracheal airway exibits signs of tube obstruction. which of the following are possible causes of this obstrucion? I the tube cuff has herniated over teh tip of the tube II the tube is obstructed by a mucus plug or secreations III the tube is kinked, or the patient is biting the tube IV the tube orifice is impinging on the tracheal wall
A.
B.
C.
D.
154.  which of the following should be charted in the patient’s medical record after completion of an IPPB treatment? I results of pre and post treatment assessment II any side effects III duration of therapeutic session
A.
B.
C.
D.
155.  which of the following does NOT increase the affinity of Hb for oxygen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
156.  What is the term for a civil wrong committed against an individual or property, fo which a court provides a remedy in the form of damages?
A.
B.
C.
D.
157.  Inhalation of dry gases can do which of the following? I increase viscosity of secretions II impair mucociliary motility III increase airway irritability
A.
B.
C.
D.
158.  to avoid the risk of aspiration afer a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure, what would be recommend that the patient do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
159.  To determine the most recent medical status of a patient whom you are about to start treating, you would go to which section of the medical record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
160.  whatis the normal range for pulse pressure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
161.  HIPAA was established in 1996 to set standards related to sharing confidential health history information about patients. What does the letter “P” stand for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
162.  Which of the following abnormalities should the pracitioner be on the lookout for during inspection of the extremities? I digital clubbing II peripheral cyanosis III pedal edema IV impaired capillary refill V low peripheral skin temp
A.
B.
C.
D.
163.  Which of th following best represents the partial pressures of all gases in the normally ventilated and perfused alveolus when breathing room air at sea level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
164.  while reviewing the chart of a patient receiving postural drainage therapy, you notice that the patient tend to undergo mild desaturation during. which of the following would you recommend to manage this problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
165.  all of the following are goals o fbronchial hygiene therapy except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
166.  all of the following are considered bronchial hygiene therapies except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
167.  ___________ is the medical name for low level of oxygen in blood
A.
B.
C.
D.
168.  which of the following “layers” must be traversed by gases moving across teh alveolar-capillary membrane? I alveolar epithelial membrane II capillary endothelial membrane III interstitial space IV transbronchial radial tethering mechanisms
A.
B.
C.
D.
169.  department of transportaion (DOT) regulations require compressed gas cylinder to be hydrostatically tested for leaks and expansion every how often?
A.
B.
C.
D.
170.  physiologic effects of inhaled nitric oxide include all of th follwoing except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
171.  to ensure adequate humidification for a patient with an artificial airway, inspired gas at teh proximal airway should be 100% saturated with water vapor and at which of the following temp?
A.
B.
C.
D.
172.  what term is used to describe difficult breathing in the reclining position?
A.
B.
C.
D.
173.  The total CO2 value is linked to what electrolyte in the blood serum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
174.  what is the key difference between small compressed gas cylinders adn their larger counterparts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
175.  tracheal airways increase the incidence of pulmonary infections for all of the following reasons except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
176.  a patient recovering from anesthesia after abdominal surgery is having difficulty developing an effective cough/ which of the following phases of the cough reflex are primarily affected in this patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
177.  which of the following is false about invasive versus nonivasive monitoring?
A.
B.
C.
D.
178.  after coming on a patient with complete obstruction of an oral endotracheal tube, your efforts to relieve the obstruction by moving the patient’s head adn neack and deflationg the curff both fail. what should be your next step?
A.
B.
C.
D.
179.  in which of the following conditons should fiberoptic bronchoscopy NOT be performed if teh risks outweigh the potential benefits? I uncorrected bleeding diorders II presence of lung abscess III refractory hypoxemia IV unstable hemodynamic status
A.
B.
C.
D.
180.  what is the normal range of PAO2-PaO2 for healthy young adults breathing room air?
A.
B.
C.
D.
181.  the first heart sound is created primarily by which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
182.  if you have to deliver O2 to a patient directly from a bedside outlet station, which of the following devices would you select?
A.
B.
C.
D.

183.  which if the following is the only absolute contraindicaion of turning?
A.
B.
C.
D.
184.  you are about to suction a female patient who has an 8mm(internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. what is the max size catheter you would use in this case?
A.
B.
C.
D.
185.  To determine any recent trends in a patient’s pulse, repiration, or blood pressure, you would go to which section fo the medical record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
186.  hemoglobin’s affinity for carbon monoxide is more than ___________ times greater than oxygen
A.
B.
C.
D.
187.  what does a positive cuff leak test indicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
188.  you have been asked to monitor a patient who has just been extubated. which of the following parameter would you monitor? I color II breath sounds III vital signs IV inspiratory force
A.
B.
C.
D.
189.  Which of the following is NOT associated wiht diaphoresis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
190.  Which of th efollowing conditions must be met for a fire to occur? I tem high enough for combustion II presence of oxygen III presence of flammable material
A.
B.
C.
D.
191.  which of the following arteries should be palpated in pulseless adults and children older than 1 year of age?
A.
B.
C.
D.
192.  Which of the following factors has minimal or no impact on the effectiveness of the patien’s cough?
A.
B.
C.
D.
193.  what is the indexed safety system for threaded high-pressure connections between large compressed gas sylinders and their attachments?
A.
B.
C.
D.
194.  which of the following would indicate a need for O2 therapy for an adult or child? I SaO2 less than 90% II PaCO2 greater than 45 mmHg III PaO2 less than 60 mmHg
A.
B.
C.
D.
195.  what is the most important component in the oxygen transport system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
196.  What term is used to describe a RBC count that is below normal values?
A.
B.
C.
D.
197.  which of the following is NOT a hazard or complication of postural drainage therapy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
198.  waht is teh purpose of a cuff on an artificial tracheal airway?
A.
B.
C.
D.
199.  your patient has a abnormal sensorium. Which of the following is most likely true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
200.  hypoxia is best defined as a condition in which what occurs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
201.  which ethical principle obliges a respiratory therapist to uphold a patients’s right to refuse a treatment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
202.  which of the following is/are advantages of the digital blood pressure measurement devices?
A.
B.
C.
D.
203.  which of the following injuries are NOT seen with tracheostomy tubes? I tracheomalacia II tracheal stenosis III glottic edema IV vocal cord granulomas
A.
B.
C.
D.
204.  what is the standard size for endotracheal or tracheostomy tube adapters?
A.
B.
C.
D.
205.  which of the following conditions are associated with chronic production of large volumes of sputum? I bronchiectasis II pulmonary fibrosis III cystic fibrosis IV chronic bronchitis
A.
B.
C.
D.
206.  What is the primary purpose of grounding all electrical equipment used in teh hospital setting?
A.
B.
C.
D.
207.  what are some types of passover humidifiers? I simple reservoir II membrane III wick
A.
B.
C.
D.
208.  Normal heart sounds are created primarily by which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
209.  What device is used to reduce the pressure and control the flow of compressed medical gas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
210.  complications of tracheal suctioning include all of the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
211.  which of the following statements are true about adult external cardiac compression?
A.
B.
C.
D.
212.  after removal of an oral endotracheal tube, a patient exhibits hoarseness and stridor that do not resolve with racemic epinephrine treatments. what is the most likely problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
213.  therapeutic indications for fiberoptic bronchoscopy include which of the following? I inspect the airways II retrieve foreign bodies III obtain specimens for analysis IV aid endotracheal intubation
A.
B.
C.
D.
214.  which of teh following is/are necessary for normal airway clearance? I patent airway II functional mucociliary escalator III effective cough
A.
B.
C.
D.
215.  What is the most common technique used to measure CO2 in respiratory gases?
A.
B.
C.
D.
216.  what cylinder factor is used to compute the duration of flow for a 22cu/ft O2 or air E cylinder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
217.  a patient has a whole-body oxygen consumption of 320 ml/min and a measured CaO2- CvO2 of 8 ml/dl. what is the cardiac output?
A.
B.
C.
D.
218.  You must connect a large-volume nevulizer to a bedside compressed-air outlet through a flowmeter. You have only standard O2 flowmeters available. which of the following actions is appropriate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
219.  What ethical principle can be used to justify the pain that might occur in drawing blook form a patient for a diagnostic test?
A.
B.
C.
D.
220.  what is the primary indication for tracheal suctioning?
A.
B.
C.
D.
221.  Which of the following organs is the most sensitive to the effects of electrical shock?
A.
B.
C.
D.
222.  what is the purpose of the the additional side port on most modern endotracheal tubes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
223.  which of the following is NOT a common cause of tachypnea?
A.
B.
C.
D.
224.  what is the measurement of CO2 in respiratory gases called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
225.  indications for pulse oximetry include all of the following except the need
A.
B.
C.
D.
226.  wich of the following types of artificial airways are inserted through the larynx? I pharyngeal airways II tracheostomy tube III nasotracheal tubes IV orotracheal tubes
A.
B.
C.
D.
227.  In a person breating room air, if the alveolar PCO2 rises from 40 to 70 mmHg, what would you expect?
A.
B.
C.
D.
228.  the affinity of Hb for carbon monoxide is approximately how many times greater than its affinity for oxygen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
229.  for gas exchange to occur between alvoli and pulmonary capillaries a difference in partial pressure must exist
A.
B.
230.  which of teh following can help to minimize the likelihood of mucosal trauma druring suctioning? I use as large a catheter as possible II rotate teh catherter while withdraweing III use as rigid a catheter as possible IV limit the amount of negative pressure
A.
B.
C.
D.
231.  what is the first step in basic life support?
A.
B.
C.
D.
232.  what can properly applied O2 therapy decrease? I venilatory demand II work of breathing III cardiac output
A.
B.
C.
D.
233.  Carbon dioxide is most commonly elevated due to significant pulmonary disease that results in small tidal volumes
A.
B.
234.  all of the follwoing would indicate a successful outcome for ostural drainage therapy except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
235.  which of the following is not a potential hazard of IPPB?
A.
B.
C.
D.
236.  The elements of a POMR entry would include which of the following? I patient’s subjective complaints and concerns II objective data gathered by teh health professional III assessment of the subjective and objective data IV plan to address the identified problems
A.
B.
C.
D.
237.  which factors affect oxygen loading and unloading of hemoglobin? I pH of the blood II body temp III abnormal Hb IV patient’s respiratory rate
A.
B.
C.
D.
238.  In what space is the patient interview conducted by the clinician?
A.
B.
C.
D.
239.  key points to consider in planning fiberoptic bronchoscopy inclyde which of the following? I equipment preparation II premedication III airway preparation IV monitoring
A.
B.
C.
D.
240.  a patient reciving 3L/min O2 through a nasal cannula has a meassured SpO2 of 93% and no clinical signs of hypoxemia. At this point, what should you recommend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
241.  to ensure a stable FIO2 under varying patient demands, what must an O2 delivery system do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
242.  The lowest PO2 would normally be found in what location?
A.
B.
C.
D.
243.  which of the following clinical finding indicate the development of atelectasis? I opacified areas on teh chest xray film II inspiratory and expiratory wheezing III tachypnea IV diminished or bronchial breath sounds
A.
B.
C.
D.
244.  administration of dry gases at flows exceeding 4L/min can cause which of the following? I structural damage II heat loss III water loss
A.
B.
C.
D.
245.  as tissue pH increases to the left loading of oxygen occurs
A.
B.
246.  Which of the following is considered the primary source of infection in the health care setting?
A.
B.
C.
D.
247.  you start a COPD patient on a nasal O2 cannula at 2L/min/ what is the max time that should pass before assessing this patient’s PaO2 or SaO2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
248.  which of the following factor will decrease the FIO2 delivered by a low flow O2 system? I short inspiratory time II fast rate of breathing III lowe O2 input IV large minute ventilation
A.
B.
C.
D.
249.  a patient receiving nasal oxygen at 3L/min complains of nasal dryness and irriation. Which of the following action would be appropriate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
250.  which of the following is FALSE about the simple O2 mask?
A.
B.
C.
D.
251.  The second heart sound is created primarily by which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
252.  Where are the majority of respiratory therapists employed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
253.  which of the following statements describe a normal adult lung?
A.
B.
C.
D.
254.  which of the following positins is ideal for IPPB therapy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
255.  which of the following statements about CO2 is FALSE?
A.
B.
C.
D.
256.  the pressure of O2 or air in a bulk supply system is reduced to what standard working pressure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
257.  to accurately determine the remaining contents of a liquid-filled CO2 cylinder, what would you do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
258.  which of the outcomes would indicate improvement in apatient previously diagnosed with atelectasis who has been receiving incentive spirometry? I improved PaO2 II decreased respiratory rate III improved chest radiograph IV decreased forced vital capacity V tachycardia
A.
B.
C.
D.
259.  which of the following airway clearance techniques would recommend for a 15 month old infant with cystic fibrosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
260.  what is the primary goal of humidity therapy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
261.  all of the following techniques can be used to improve one’s listening skills execpt:
A.
B.
C.
D.
262.  what is the normal range of negative pressure to use when suctioing an adult patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
263.  during single rescuer adult CPR, what is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
264.  At a PaO2 of 65 mmHg, what is the approx saturation of Hb with oxygen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
265.  oximetry is the measurement of blood hemoglobin saturation using what technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
266.  which of the following equipment is NOT needed to perform nasotracheal suctioning?
A.
B.
C.
D.
267.  you are about to suction a 10 year old patient who has a 6mm(internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. what is the max size of catheter that you would use in this case?
A.
B.
C.
D.
268.  correct insttruction in the technique of incentive spirometry should include which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
269.  soon after endotracheal tube extubation, an adult patient exhibis a high pitched inspiratory noise, heard without a stethoscope. which of the following actions would you recommend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
270.  What term is used to describe a sodium concentration that is below normal in the blood serum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
271.  What is the technical term for secretions from the tracheobronchial tree that have not been contaminated by the mouth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
272.  which of teh follwoing bedise methods can absolutely confirm proper endotracheal tube position in the trachea?
A.
B.
C.
D.
273.  an alert and cooperative 28 year old women with no prior history of lung disease under went cesarean section 16 hours earlier. her xray film currently is clear. which of the following approaches to preventing atelectasis would you recommend for this patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
274.  which of the following are contraindications for continous CPAP therapy? I hemodynamic instability IIhypoventilation III facial trauma IV low intracranial pressure
A.
B.
C.
D.
275.  what does the presence of stridor indicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
276.  in performing the sustained maximal inspiration maneuver during incentive spirometry should be instructed to sustain the breath for at least how long?
A.
B.
C.
D.
277.  what is a rare but serious complication associated with endotracheal tube extubation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
278.  perfusion without ventilation is classifed as
A.
B.
C.
D.
279.  what is teh optimal breathing pattern for IPPB treatment of atelectasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
280.  you are assisting a physician in teh emergency care of a patient with maxillofacial injuty who will require short term ventilatory support. which of the following airway approaches would you recommend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
281.  the highest PCO2 levels are found in what location?
A.
B.
C.
D.
282.  what is the most common sign associated with the transient glottic edema or vocal cord inflammation that follows extubation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
283.  what is the recommended dilution level of bleach according to the CDC for cleaning up blood spills?
A.
B.
C.
D.
284.  all of the following are typical of high frequency external chest wall compression therapy except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
285.  for patients receiving incentive spirometry, what is teh minimum number of sustained maximal inspiration per hour that you would recommend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
286.  What type of white blood cell increases in response to viral infections?
A.
B.
C.
D.
287.  which of the following patient groups should be considered for lung expansion therapy using IPPB? I patients with clinically diagnosed atelectasis who are not responsive to other therapies II patients at high risk for atelectasis who cannot perform other methods III all ovese patients who have undergone abdominal surgery
A.
B.
C.
D.
288.  To find out what drugs or intravenous fluids a patient has received recently, you would go to which section of the medical record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
289.  What is the most common cause of hypothermia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
290.  during two person CPR applied to an adult, what is the proper ration of compressions to ventilation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
291.  what is the most common cause of airway obstruction in uncoscious patients?
A.
B.
C.
D.
292.  what does V/Q mismatch have the biggest impact on?
A.
B.
C.
D.
293.  The sweat chloride level is used to diagnose which of the following disorders?
A.
B.
C.
D.
294.  What term is used to describe a WBC count that is below normal values?
A.
B.
C.
D.
295.  a patient is receiving O2 through a nonrebreathing mask set at 8L/min. you notice that the mask’s reservoir bag collapses completely before the end of each inspiratoin. Which of the following actions is appropriate in this case?
A.
B.
C.
D.
296.  which of the following features incorporated into most modern endotracheal tubes assist in verifying proper tube placement? I lenght markings on the curved body of the tube II imbedded radiopaque indicator near the tube tip III additional side port near the tube tip
A.
B.
C.
D.
297.  Continuous SpO2 monitoring is indicated in all of the following situatinos except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
298.  What voluntary accrediting agency monitors quality in respiratory care departments?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
299.  why should the respiratory therapist perform a blood pressure assessment fairly quickly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
300.  which of the following is FALSE about heated humidifier condensate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
301.  in which of teh following patients would you consider modifying any head down positions used for postural drainage? I a patient with unstable blood pressure II a patient with a cerebrovascular disorder III a patient with systemic hypertension IV a patient with orhopnea
A.
B.
C.
D.
302.  a physician orders positive expiratory pressure therapy for a 14 year old child with cystic fibrosis. all of the following responses should be monitored on teh patient except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
303.  Which of the following are unacceptable practices in medical recordkeeping? I specifying when you will return to provide patient therapy II providing your own interpretation of a patient’s symptoms III recording the patient’s complaints and general behavior IV charting several separate tasks under a single chart entry
A.
B.
C.
D.
304.  if blood flow increases, such as heavy exercise, capillary transit time can decrease as low was
A.
B.
C.
D.