1. 
which of the following factors are most critical in determining when a patient can be ambulated? I. willingness of patient II. stability of vital signs III. absence of severe pain
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  preliminary planning for IPPB should include which of the following? I evaluating alternative approaches to the patients problem II setting specific individual clinical goals or objectives III conducting a baseline assessment of teh patient
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  What is the technical term for secretions from the tracheobronchial tree that have not been contaminated by the mouth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  what is the approximate normal CaO2- CvO2 in a healthy adult at rest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  What is the chief reason that respiratory care protocols were developed and are currently being used in hospitals throughout North America?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
6.  in which of teh following patients would you consider modifying any head down positions used for postural drainage? I a patient with unstable blood pressure II a patient with a cerebrovascular disorder III a patient with systemic hypertension IV a patient with orhopnea
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  which of the following is NOT a common cause of tachypnea?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  what is the proper ratio of external chest compressions to ventilation for infants?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  Where are the majority of respiratory therapists employed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  a patient with a tracheal airway exibits signs of tube obstruction. which of the following are possible causes of this obstrucion? I the tube cuff has herniated over teh tip of the tube II the tube is obstructed by a mucus plug or secreations III the tube is kinked, or the patient is biting the tube IV the tube orifice is impinging on the tracheal wall
A.
B.
C.
D.

 

11.  What term is used to describe a sodium concentration that is below normal in the blood serum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  which of the following statements are true about adult external cardiac compression?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  when oxygen falls short of cellular needs hypoxia occurs.. What are the factors that contribute to this outcome I the arterial blood oxygen content is decreased II cardiac output or perfusion is decreased III abnormal cellular functino prevents proper uptake of oxygen IV all the above
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  in theory how does PEP help to move secretions into the larger airways? I filling underaerated segments through collateral ventilation II preventing airway collapes during exiration III causing bronchodilation during inspiration
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  which of the following equipment is NOT needed to perform nasotracheal suctioning?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  after coming on a patient with complete obstruction of an oral endotracheal tube, your efforts to relieve the obstruction by moving the patient’s head adn neack and deflationg the curff both fail. what should be your next step?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  What is the term for a civil wrong committed against an individual or property, fo which a court provides a remedy in the form of damages?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  hazards and complications of bland aerosol therapy include all of the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  the affinity of Hb for carbon monoxide is approximately how many times greater than its affinity for oxygen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  what can properly applied O2 therapy decrease? I venilatory demand II work of breathing III cardiac output
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  In which of the following conditions will erythrocyte concentraton of 23DPG be decreased?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  what is the only major factor limiting the use of pressure-compensated thorpe tube flowmeter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  you are assisting a physician in teh emergency care of a patient with maxillofacial injuty who will require short term ventilatory support. which of the following airway approaches would you recommend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  which of the following are potential desirable outcomes of IPPB therapy? I improved oxygenation II increased cough and secration clearance III improved breath sounds IV reduced dyspnea
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  what is the upper limit of normal for the fasting blood glucose level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  which factors affect oxygen loading and unloading of hemoglobin? I pH of the blood II body temp III abnormal Hb IV patient’s respiratory rate
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  compared with translaryngeal intubation, the advantage of tracheostomy include all of the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  for patients receiving incentive spirometry, what is teh minimum number of sustained maximal inspiration per hour that you would recommend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  you are about to suction a female patient who has an 8mm(internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. what is the max size catheter you would use in this case?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  the diaphragm is innervated by which of the following nerves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  which of the following statements describe a normal adult lung?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  Which of th following best represents the partial pressures of all gases in the normally ventilated and perfused alveolus when breathing room air at sea level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  why are zone valves incorporated into a hospital’s central gas piping systems? I to terminate O2 delivery to an area in case of fire II to allow selective maintenance without shutting the system down III to allow variable pressure reduction throughout the system
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  what is a rare but serious complication associated with endotracheal tube extubation?
A.
B.
C.
D.


35.  which of the following methods can help to reduce the likelihood of atelectasis due to tracheal suctioning? I limit the amount of negative pressure used II hyperinflate teh patient before and after the procedure III suction for a short a period of time as possible
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  In the standard approach to hospital fires the RACE plan has been suggested. What does the letter “C” stand for in this approach?
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  which of the following would indicate a need for O2 therapy for an adult or child? I SaO2 less than 90% II PaCO2 greater than 45 mmHg III PaO2 less than 60 mmHg
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  which of the following forms is carbon dioxide transported by the blood? I chemically combined with proteins II ionized as bicarbonate III simple physical solution
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  what is the max recommended range for tracheal tube cuff pressure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  what is the usual method of monitoring the remaing contents in a gas-filled cylinder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  what cylinder factor is used to compute the duration of flow for a 22cu/ft O2 or air E cylinder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  which of teh following can provoke a cough? I anesthesia II foreign bodies III infection IV irritating gases
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  for gas exchange to occur between alvoli and pulmonary capillaries a difference in partial pressure must exist
A.
B.
44.  which of the following clinical finding indicate the development of atelectasis? I opacified areas on teh chest xray film II inspiratory and expiratory wheezing III tachypnea IV diminished or bronchial breath sounds
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  Which of the following is NOT predicted to be a growing trend in respiratory care for the future?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  at body temp how much oxygen will physically dissolve in plasma at a PO2 of 40 mmHg?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  What term is used to describe a RBC count that is below normal values?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  key points to consider in planning fiberoptic bronchoscopy inclyde which of the following? I equipment preparation II premedication III airway preparation IV monitoring
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  which of the following injuries are NOT seen with tracheostomy tubes? I tracheomalacia II tracheal stenosis III glottic edema IV vocal cord granulomas
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  what is the major contributing factor in the development of postoperative atelectasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  department of transportaion (DOT) regulations require compressed gas cylinder to be hydrostatically tested for leaks and expansion every how often?
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.  which of the following are contraindications for continous CPAP therapy? I hemodynamic instability IIhypoventilation III facial trauma IV low intracranial pressure
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.  during administration of a continouse positive airway pressure flow mask to a patient with atelectasis you find it difficult to maintain the prescrived airway pressure. which of the following is the most common explanation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  oximetry is the measurement of blood hemoglobin saturation using what technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.  after removal of an oral endotracheal tube, a patient exhibits hoarseness and stridor that do not resolve with racemic epinephrine treatments. what is the most likely problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.  what are some types of passover humidifiers? I simple reservoir II membrane III wick
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  under normal physiologic circumstances, how many mililiter of oxygen are capable of combining with 1 g of Hb?
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  as the amount of oxygen that dissolves in teh plasma increases, what is it directly proportional to?
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  which of the following vavles corresponds most closely to the normal PO2 and PCO2 in the mixed venous blood returning to the lungs from the right side of the heart?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  Which of the following test is used to evaluate renal function?
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.  While palpating the chest of a patient who repeats the words “ninety-nine” you note an area of increased tactile frmitus over teh left lower love/ which of the following could explain this finding? I pneumothorax II emphysema III pneumonia
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  directed coughing is useful in helping to maintain bronchial hygiene in all of the following cases except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  what term is used to describe difficult breathing in the reclining position?
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.  which of the following is false about invasive versus nonivasive monitoring?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  What will happen when the lung is surgically removed from the thorax?
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.  a patient reciving 3L/min O2 through a nasal cannula has a meassured SpO2 of 93% and no clinical signs of hypoxemia. At this point, what should you recommend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  an alert and cooperative 28 year old women with no prior history of lung disease under went cesarean section 16 hours earlier. her xray film currently is clear. which of the following approaches to preventing atelectasis would you recommend for this patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  which of the following is FALSE about the simple O2 mask?
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.  to avoid the risk of aspiration afer a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure, what would be recommend that the patient do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  Which of the following is NOT an expected role of a respiratory therapist?
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.  to help open the airways of a conscious adult with complete airway obstruction, what would you do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.  equipment required for patient support and monitoring during a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure includes all of the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.  which of the following should be charted in the patient’s medical record after completion of an IPPB treatment? I results of pre and post treatment assessment II any side effects III duration of therapeutic session
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.  What is the most common route of pathogen transmission in the hospital setting?
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.  which of the outcomes would indicate improvement in apatient previously diagnosed with atelectasis who has been receiving incentive spirometry? I improved PaO2 II decreased respiratory rate III improved chest radiograph IV decreased forced vital capacity V tachycardia
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.  what is the normal range for systolic blood pressure in the adult patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.  decrease in body temp shifts the HbO2 curve to teh left
A.
B.
78.  what happens when the temp of blood rises? I the Hb saturation for a given PO2 falls II the HbO2 curve shifts to teh right III the affinity of Hb for oxygen increases
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.  what is the purpose of the the additional side port on most modern endotracheal tubes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.  which of the following statements is false about the potential for aspiration in patient with cuffed tracheal tubes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.  What term is used to describe a RBC count that is above normal values?
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.  tracheal stenosis occurs in as many as 1 in 10 patients after prolonged tracheostomy. at what sites does this stenosis usually occur? I cuff site II tip of the tube III stoma site
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.  indications for pulse oximetry include all of the following except the need
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.  if blood flow increases, such as heavy exercise, capillary transit time can decrease as low was
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.  Which of the following parameters should be monitored during ambulation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.  in performing the sustained maximal inspiration maneuver during incentive spirometry should be instructed to sustain the breath for at least how long?
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.  you are about to suction a 10 year old patient who has a 6mm(internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. what is the max size of catheter that you would use in this case?
A.
B.
C.
D.
88.  the first heart sound is created primarily by which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.  to clean a cylinder valve outlet of foreign material, what should you do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.  which of the following is an indication for the use of heliumO2 mixtures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.  the time avaiable for diffusion in the lung is mainly a funciton of wich of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
92.  which of the following sites is closest to core body temp?
A.
B.
C.
D.
93.  an O2 delivery device takes separate pressurized air and O2 sources as input, then mixes thes gases through a precision valve. What does this describe?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.  for chest compressions to be effective, in what position must the patient be placed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.  during single rescuer adult CPR, what is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.  a very common application of teh adjustable pressure-reducing valve is in combination with which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.  which of the following is NOT a hazard or complication of postural drainage therapy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.  which of the following positins is ideal for IPPB therapy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.  when determining a need for O2 therapy, the respiratory therapist should asses which of teh following? I neurologic status II pulmonary status III cardiac status
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.  during two person CPR applied to an adult, what is the proper ration of compressions to ventilation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
101.  Under what condition can the principle of confidentiality be breached?
A.
B.
C.
D.
102.  which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of sterile gloves in the hospital setting?
A.
B.
C.
D.
103.  Normal heart sounds are created primarily by which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.


104.  which of the following acutely ill patients is LEAST likely to benefit from application of chest physical therapy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
105.  a patient exhibits persistent stridor after a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure. which of the following would recommend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
106.  to protect against obstructed or kinked tubing, simple bubble humidifiers incorporate which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
107.  the largest percentage of carbon dioxide transported in the blood occurs as which of the follwoing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
108.  what is the minimum amount of time that blood must take for pulmonary capillary transit for equilibration of oxygen to occur across alveolar-capillary membrane?
A.
B.
C.
D.
109.  To determine the most recent medical status of a patient whom you are about to start treating, you would go to which section of the medical record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
110.  you start a COPD patient on a nasal O2 cannula at 2L/min/ what is the max time that should pass before assessing this patient’s PaO2 or SaO2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
111.  which of teh following is/are necessary for normal airway clearance? I patent airway II functional mucociliary escalator III effective cough
A.
B.
C.
D.
112.  which of the following does NOT increase the affinity of Hb for oxygen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
113.  The second heart sound is created primarily by which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
114.  which ethical principle obliges a respiratory therapist to uphold a patients’s right to refuse a treatment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
115.  if you have to deliver O2 to a patient directly from a bedside outlet station, which of the following devices would you select?
A.
B.
C.
D.
116.  during properly performed external chest compression on children under 8 years or on large toddlers, how much should teh sternum be compressed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
117.  all of the following indicate an inability to adequately protect the airway except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
118.  hemoglobin’s affinity for carbon monoxide is more than ___________ times greater than oxygen
A.
B.
C.
D.
119.  HIPAA was established in 1996 to set standards related to sharing confidential health history information about patients. What does the letter “P” stand for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
120.  which of the following conditions are associated with chronic production of large volumes of sputum? I bronchiectasis II pulmonary fibrosis III cystic fibrosis IV chronic bronchitis
A.
B.
C.
D.
121.  you have been asked to monitor a patient who has just been extubated. which of the following parameter would you monitor? I color II breath sounds III vital signs IV inspiratory force
A.
B.
C.
D.
122.  which of the following is a true statement about the cause of systemic hypertension in adult patients?
A.
B.
C.
D.
123.  The sweat chloride level is used to diagnose which of the following disorders?
A.
B.
C.
D.
124.  what is the function of the thorax?
A.
B.
C.
D.
125.  which of the following terms is used to describe coughing up blood streaked sputum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
126.  What device is used to reduce the pressure and control the flow of compressed medical gas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
127.  If you make a mistake when charting a patient treatment, what should you do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.  correct insttruction in the technique of incentive spirometry should include which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
129.  what is teh normal range of negative pressure to use when suctioning children?
A.
B.
C.
D.
130.  what is the most common complication of suctioning?
A.
B.
C.
D.
131.  all of the following are goals o fbronchial hygiene therapy except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
132.  To determine the amount of urine excreted by a patient in the last 24 hours, you would go to which of the section of the medical record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
133.  all of the following techniques can be used to improve one’s listening skills execpt:
A.
B.
C.
D.
134.  When a practitioner performs a procedure that involves physical contact without the patient’s consent, it can result in what charge?
A.
B.
C.
D.
135.  what is the key difference between small compressed gas cylinders adn their larger counterparts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
136.  patients can control a flutter valves pressure by changing what?
A.
B.
C.
D.
137.  if the total hemoglobin content (Hb + HbO2) of a sample of blood is 20 g/dl and the oxyhemoglobin (HbO2) content is 15 g/dl, what is the HbO2 saturation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
138.  what does the presence of stridor indicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
139.  when used to control the flow of medical gages to a patient, how is a thorpe tube classified?
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.  what is the most common sign associated with the transient glottic edema or vocal cord inflammation that follows extubation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
141.  you are preparing to conduct a complex transport of a patient receiving O2, and you expect to have to alter O2 flows during the trasport. Which of the following devices would best meet your needs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
142.  What disease is associated with a barrel chest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.  a patient with a tracheal airway exhibits sever respiratory distress. on quick examination, you notice the complete absence of breath sounds and no gas flowing through the airway. what is most likely the problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
144.  a patient receiving nasal oxygen at 3L/min complains of nasal dryness and irriation. Which of the following action would be appropriate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
145.  which of the following arteries should be palpated in pulseless adults and children older than 1 year of age?
A.
B.
C.
D.
146.  what is the name of the external landmark that identifies the point at which the trachea branches into the right and left mainstem bronchi?
A.
B.
C.
D.
147.  What is the most common cause of hypothermia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
148.  What key property of He makes it useful as a therapeutic gas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
149.  a cooperative an alert postoperative patient taking food orally requires a small increment in FIO2, to be provided continuosly. Precise FIO2 concentratons are not need. Which of the following devices would best achieve this end?
A.
B.
C.
D.
150.  Which of the following is a method for communicating empathy to your patients?
A.
B.
C.
D.

For Part 2 of the Seminar Exam Review, Click Here.