1. which of the following factors are most critical in determining when a patient can be ambulated? I. willingness of patient II. stability of vital signs III. absence of severe pain
A. II and III
B. I and II
D.I and III

2. preliminary planning for IPPB should include which of the following? I evaluating alternative approaches to the patient’s problem II setting specific individual clinical goals or objectives III conducting a baseline assessment of the patient
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. I II and III
D. II and III

3. What is the technical term for secretions from the tracheobronchial tree that have not been contaminated by the mouth?
A. sputum
B. phlegm
C. mucous
D. pus

4. what is the approximate normal CaO2- CvO2 in a healthy adult at rest?
A. 5 ml/dl
B. 15 ml/dl
C. 20 ml/dl
D. 250 ml/dl

5. What is the chief reason that respiratory care protocols were developed and are currently being used in hospitals throughout North America?
A. enhance proper allocation of respiratory care services
B. decrease patient care costs to hospitals and insurance companies
C. expand patient care skills among respiratory care providers
D. enhance efficiency of respiratory care personnel in providing patient care
E. justify reasons for increasing patient care costs

6. in which of the following patients would you consider modifying any head down positions used for postural drainage? I a patient with unstable blood pressure II a patient with a cerebrovascular disorder III a patient with systemic hypertension IV a patient with orthopnea
A. I II III and IV
B. II and IV
C. II III and IV
D. II and IV

7. which of the following is NOT a common cause of tachypnea?
A. hypoxemia
B. exercise
C. narcotic overdoes
D. metabolic acidosis

8. what is the proper ratio of external chest compressions to ventilation for infants?
A. 5:1
B. 3:1
C. 15:2
D. 30:5

9. Where are the majority of respiratory therapists employed?
A. skilled nursing facilities
B. diagnostic laboratories
C. hospitals or acute care settings
D. outpatient physician offices

10. a patient with a tracheal airway exhibits signs of tube obstruction. which of the following are possible causes of this obstruction? I the tube cuff has herniated over the tip of the tube II the tube is obstructed by a mucus plug or secretions III the tube is kinked, or the patient is biting the tube IV the tube orifice is impinging on the tracheal wall
A. II and IV
B. III and IV
C. I II and III
D. I II III and IV

11. What term is used to describe a sodium concentration that is below normal in the blood serum?
A. hypokalemia
B. hyponatremia
C. hypocalcemia
D. hypochloremia

12. which of the following statements are true about adult external cardiac compression?
A. compressions should displace the sternum at least 3 to 4 inches
B. compression should occur at a rate of 100 per minute
C. compression time should be less than upstroke phase
D. compression can be safely interrupted for up to 50 seconds

13. when oxygen falls short of cellular needs hypoxia occurs. What are the factors that contribute to this outcome I the arterial blood oxygen content is decreased II cardiac output or perfusion is decreased III abnormal cellular function prevents proper uptake of oxygen IV all the above
A. I
B. I and III

14. in theory how does PEP help to move secretions into the larger airways? I filling underaerated segments through collateral ventilation II preventing airway collapes during exiration III causing bronchodilation during inspiration
A. I II and III
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I and II

15. which of the following equipment is NOT needed to perform nasotracheal suctioning?
A. suction kit
B. laryngoscope with MacIntosh and Miller blades
C. oxygen delivery system
D. bottle of sterile water or saline solution

16. after coming on a patient with complete obstruction of an oral endotracheal tube, your efforts to relieve the obstruction by moving the patient’s head and neck and deflating the cuff both fail. what should be your next step?
A. call for an emergency tracheotomy
B. apply manual positive pressure
C. immediately extubate the patient
D. try to pass a suction catheter

17. What is the term for a civil wrong committed against an individual or property, for which a court provides a remedy in the form of damages?
A. tort
B. misdemeanor
C. felony
D. litigation

18. hazards and complications of bland aerosol therapy include all of the following except:
A. bronchospasm
B. overhydration
C. infection
D. hemoconcentration

19. the affinity of Hb for carbon monoxide is approximately how many times greater than its affinity for oxygen?
A. 10 to 50
B. 50 to 90
C. 100 to 190
D. 200 or greater

20. what can properly apply O2 therapy decrease? I ventilatory demand II work of breathing III cardiac output
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. I and III

21. In which of the following conditions will erythrocyte concentration of 23DPG be decreased?
A. anemia
B. banked blood
C. high pH
D. hypoxemia

22. what is the only major factor limiting the use of pressure-compensated thorpe tube flowmeter?
A. downstream resistance
B. effect of position (gravity)
C. DISS connector availability
D. use with gases other than O2

23. you are assisting a physician in the emergency care of a patient with maxillofacial injury who will require short term ventilatory support. which of the following airway approaches would you recommend?
A. intubate via the oral route
B. insert an oropharyngeal airway
C. perform an emergency tracheotomy
D. intubate via the nasal route

24. which of the following are potential desirable outcomes of IPPB therapy? I improved oxygenation II increased cough and secretion clearance III improved breath sounds IV reduced dyspnea
A. II and IV
B. I II and III
C. III and IV
D. I II III and IV

25. what is the upper limit of normal for the fasting blood glucose level?
A. 50 mg/dl
B. 85 mg/dl
C. 105 mg/dl
D. 140 mg/dl

26. which factors affect oxygen loading and unloading of hemoglobin? I pH of the blood II body temp III abnormal Hb IV patient’s respiratory rate
A. all the above
B. I II and III

27. compared with trans-laryngeal intubation, the advantage of tracheostomy include all of the following except:
A. greater patient comfort
B. reduced risk of bronchial intubation
C. no upper airway complications
D. decreased frequency of aspiration

28. for patients receiving incentive spirometry, what is the minimum number of sustained maximal inspiration per hour that you would recommend?
A. 25 to 30
B. 15 to 20
C. 5 to 10
D. 1 to 2

29. you are about to suction a female patient who has an 8mm(internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. what is the max size catheter you would use in this case?
A. 8 Fr
B. 10 Fr
C. 12 Fr
D. 14 Fr

30. the diaphragm is innervated by which of the following nerves?
A. glossopharyngeal
B. phrenic
C. seventh cranial
D. vagus

31. which of the following statements describe a normal adult lung?
A. the left lung is bisected by two fissures
B. the left lung has an upper a middle and lower lobe
C. the right lung has only an upper and lower lobe
D. the right lung has three lobes and two fissures

32. Which of the following best represents the partial pressures of all gases in the normally ventilated and perfused alveolus when breathing room air at sea level?
A. PO2= 40 PCO2= 100 PN2= 573 PH20= 47
B. PO2= 100 PCO2= 40 PN2= 573 PH20= 47
C. PO2= 100 PCO2= 40 PN2= 713 PH2O= 47
D. PO2= 149 PCO2= 40 PN2= 573 PH2O= 47

33. why are zone valves incorporated into a hospital’s central gas piping systems? I to terminate O2 delivery to an area in case of fire II to allow selective maintenance without shutting the system down III to allow variable pressure reduction throughout the system
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I II and III

34. what is a rare but serious complication associated with endotracheal tube extubation?
A. bradycardia
B. aspiration
C. infection
D. laryngospasm

35. which of the following methods can help to reduce the likelihood of atelectasis due to tracheal suctioning? I limit the amount of negative pressure used II hyperinflate the patient before and after the procedure III suction for a short a period of time as possible
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I II and III

36. In the standard approach to hospital fires, the RACE plan has been suggested. What does the letter “C” stand for in this approach?
A. capture
B. contain
C. call for help
D. collapse

37. which of the following would indicate a need for O2 therapy for an adult or child? I SaO2 less than 90% II PaCO2 greater than 45 mmHg III PaO2 less than 60 mmHg
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. I and III

38. which of the following forms is carbon dioxide transported by the blood? I chemically combined with proteins II ionized as bicarbonate III simple physical solution
C. II and III
D. I II and III

39. what is the max recommended range for tracheal tube cuff pressure?
A. 15 to 20 mmHg
B. 20 to 25 mmHg
C. 25 to 30 mmHg
D. 30 to 35 mmHg

40. what is the usual method of monitoring the remaining contents in a gas-filled cylinder?
A. weigh the cylinder
B. read the pressure gauge
C. compute the gas density
D. read the cylinder label

41. what cylinder factor is used to compute the duration of flow for a 22cu/ft O2 or air E cylinder?
A. .28
B. 1.34
C. 2.41
D. 3.14

42. which of the following can provoke a cough? I anesthesia II foreign bodies III infection IV irritating gases
A. II and IV
B. I II and III
C. III and IV
D. II III and IV

43. for gas exchange to occur between alveoli and pulmonary capillaries a difference in partial pressure must exist
A. True
B. False

44. which of the following clinical finding indicate the development of atelectasis? I opacified areas on the chest x-ray film II inspiratory and expiratory wheezing III tachypnea IV diminished or bronchial breath sounds
A. I III and IV
C. I and IV
D. I III and IV

45. Which of the following is NOT predicted to be a growing trend in respiratory care for the future?
A. greater use of respiratory therapy protocols
B. increased need for patient assessment skills
C. increased involvement in smoking cessation programs
D. increased use of intravascular lines for patient monitoring

46. at body temp how much oxygen will physically dissolve in plasma at a PO2 of 40 mmHg?
A. 0.12 ml/dl
B. 0.20 ml/dl
C. 0.30 ml/dl
D. 1.34 g/dl

47. What term is used to describe an RBC count that is below normal values?
A. leukocytosis
B. leukopenia
C. anemia
D. polycythemia

48. key points to consider in planning fiberoptic bronchoscopy include which of the following? I equipment preparation II premedication III airway preparation IV monitoring
A. II and IV
B. III and IV
C. I II and III
D. I II III and IV

49. which of the following injuries are NOT seen with tracheostomy tubes? I tracheomalacia II tracheal stenosis III glottic edema IV vocal cord granulomas
A. I and IV
B. II and IV
C. III and IV
D. I II and III

50. what is the major contributing factor in the development of postoperative atelectasis?
A. uncontrolled hyperpyrexia
B. central nervous system overstimulation
C. decreased cardiac output
D. repetitive, shallow breathing

51. department of transportation (DOT) regulations require compressed gas cylinder to be hydrostatically tested for leaks and expansion every how often?
A. 1 to 2 years
B. 3 to 5 years
C. 6 to 8 years
D. 5 to 10 years

52. which of the following are contraindications for continuous CPAP therapy? I hemodynamic instability IIhypoventilation III facial trauma IV low intracranial pressure
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I II and III
D. II IIi and IV

53. during the administration of a continuous positive airway pressure flow mask to a patient with atelectasis you find it difficult to maintain the prescribed airway pressure. which of the following is the most common explanation?
A. system or mask leaks
B. outflow obstruction
C. inadequate system flow
D. inadequate trigger

54. oximetry is the measurement of blood hemoglobin saturation using what technique?
A. electrochemical dissociation
B. photoplethysmography
C. photochemical reactions
D. spectrophotometry

55. after removal of an oral endotracheal tube, a patient exhibits hoarseness and stridor that do not resolve with racemic epinephrine treatments. what is the most likely problem?
A. vocal cord paralysis
B. tracheoesophageal fistula
C. glottic edema or cord inflammation
D. tracheomalacia

56. what are some types of Passover humidifiers? I simple reservoir II membrane III wick
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. all the above

57. under normal physiologic circumstances, how many milliliters of oxygen is capable of combining with 1 g of Hb?
A. 0.003 ml
B. 0.450 ml
C. 0.820 ml
D. 1.34 ml

58. as the amount of oxygen that dissolves in the plasma increases, what is it directly proportional to?
A. its partial pressure
B. its solubility coefficient
C. minute ventilation
D. temperature

59. which of the following valves corresponds most closely to the normal PO2 and PCO2 in the mixed venous blood returning to the lungs from the right side of the heart?
A. PO2= 40 mmHg PCO2= 46 mmHg
B. PO2= 40 mmHg PCO2=100 mmHg
C. PO2= 100 mmHg PCO2 40 mmHg
D. PO2= 100 mmHg PCO2= 46 mmHg

60. Which of the following test is used to evaluate renal function?
A. creatinine
B. protein level
C. serum enzymes
D. sweat chloride

61. While palpating the chest of a patient who repeats the words “ninety-nine” you note an area of increased tactile fremitus over the left lower love/ which of the following could explain this finding? I pneumothorax II emphysema III pneumonia
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I II and III

62. directed coughing is useful in helping to maintain bronchial hygiene in all of the following cases except:
A. bronchiectasis
B. acute asthma
C. cystic fibrosis
D. spinal cord injury

63. what term is used to describe difficulty breathing in the reclining position?
A. orthopnea
B. platypnea
C. eupnea
D. apnea

64. which of the following is false about invasive versus noninvasive monitoring?
A. invasive procedures require insertion of a device into the body
B. lab analysis of gas exchange is usually noninvasive in nature
C. physiologic monitoring can be either invasive or noninvasive
D. invasive procedures provide more accurate data but carry greater risks

65. What will happen when the lung is surgically removed from the thorax?
A. the lung will appear to undergo no change
B. the lung will collapse
C. the lung will expand
D. the response of the lung will depend on its age and pathology

66. a patient receiving 3L/min O2 through a nasal cannula has a measured SpO2 of 93% and no clinical signs of hypoxemia. At this point, what should you recommend?
A. decreasing the flow to 2L/min and rechecking the SpO2
B. maintaining the therapy as is and rechecking the SpO2 on the next shift
C. increasing the flow to 4L/min and rechecking the SpO2
D. discontinuing the O2 therapy

67. an alert and cooperative 28-year-old women with no prior history of lung disease under went cesarean section 16 hours earlier. her xray film currently is clear. which of the following approaches to preventing atelectasis would you recommend for this patient?
A. incentive spirometry
B. PEEP therapy
C. deep breathing exercises
D. intermittent positive pressure breathing therapy

68. which of the following is FALSE about the simple O2 mask?
A. it has no valving system or reservoir bag
B. it can easily deliver high FIO2 values
C. it requires a minimal input flow of 5L/min
D. it functions as a variable-performance system

69. to avoid the risk of aspiration after a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure, what would be recommended that the patient do?
A. be placed in the supine trendelenburg position for 2 hours
B. remain in a sitting position and NPO until sensation returns
C. receive additional aerosolized lidocaine by nebulizer
D. be continuously monitored for oxygenation through pulse oximetry

70. Which of the following is NOT an expected role of a respiratory therapist?
A. promoting lung health and wellness
B. providing patient education
C. assessing the patient’s cardiopulmonary health status
D. selling oxygen therapy devices to patients

71. to help open the airways of a conscious adult with complete airway obstruction, what would you do?
A. apply back blows followed by chest thrusts
B. try to ventilate the victim at a high rate
C. decompress the stomach with epigastric pressure
D. apply repeated strong abdominal thrusts

72. equipment required for patient support and monitoring during a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure includes all of the following except:
A. pulse oximeter
B. oxygen cannula
C. electrocardiographic monitor
D. capnometer

73. which of the following should be charted in the patient’s medical record after completion of an IPPB treatment? I results of pre and post treatment assessment II any side effects III duration of therapeutic session
A. II and III
B. I and III
C. I and II
D. I II and III

74. What is the most common route of pathogen transmission in the hospital setting?
A. indirect contact
B. droplet transmission
C. airborne transmission
D. surgical transmission

75. which of the outcomes would indicate improvement in a patient previously diagnosed with atelectasis who has been receiving incentive spirometry? I improved PaO2 II decreased respiratory rate III improved chest radiograph IV decreased forced vital capacity V tachycardia
A. I II and III
B. I III and IV
C. I II III IV and V
D. III IV and V

76. what is the normal range for systolic blood pressure in the adult patient?
A. 90 to 140
B. 80 to 100
C. 75 to 100
D. 60 to 100

77. decrease in body temp shifts the HbO2 curve to the left
A. True
B. False

78. what happens when the temp of blood rises? I the Hb saturation for a given PO2 falls II the HbO2 curve shifts to the right III the affinity of Hb for oxygen increases
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II only
D. I, II, and III

79. what is the purpose of the additional side port on most modern endotracheal tubes?
A. protect the airway against aspiration
B. help ascertain proper tube position
C. minimize mucosal trauma during insertion
D. ensure gas flow if the main port is blocked

80. which of the following statements is false about the potential for aspiration in a patient with cuffed tracheal tubes?
A. periodic oropharyngeal suctioning can help to minimize aspiration
B. aspiration is least likely in spontaneously breathing patients
C. the methylene blue test can help detect leakage-type aspiration
D. aspiration is more likely with tracheostomy tubes than with endotracheal tubes

81. What term is used to describe a RBC count that is above normal values?
A. leukocytosis
B. leukopenia
C. anemia
D. polycythemia

82. tracheal stenosis occurs in as many as 1 in 10 patients after prolonged tracheostomy. at what sites does this stenosis usually occur? I cuff site II tip of the tube III stoma site
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I II and III

83. indications for pulse oximetry include all of the following except the need
A. to assess changes in HbO2 during certain procedures
B. for measurements of abnormal Hb
C. to comply with external regulations or recommendations
D. to monitor the adequacy of HbO2 saturation

84. if blood flow increases, such as heavy exercise, capillary transit time can decrease as low was
A. .75 sec
B. .45 sec
C. .35 sec
D. .25 sec

85. Which of the following parameters should be monitored during ambulation?
A. skin color
B. breathing rate and effort
C. level of consciousness
D. all the above

86. in performing the sustained maximal inspiration maneuver during incentive spirometry should be instructed to sustain the breath for at least how long?
A. 10 to 15 sec
B. 5 to 10 sec
C. 3 to 5 sec
D. 1 to 2 sec

87. you are about to suction a 10-year-old patient who has a 6mm(internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. what is the max size of catheter that you would use in this case?
A. 6 Fr
B. 8 Fr
C. 10 Fr
D. 14 Fr

88. the first heart sound is created primarily by which of the following?
A. closure of the semilunar valves
B. opening of the semilunar valves
C. opening of the atrioventricular valves
D. closure of the atrioventricular valves

89. to clean a cylinder valve outlet of foreign material, what should you do?
A. wipe the valve outlet with a light oil
B. quickly open then close the valve
C. blow into the valve outlet a few times
D. wipe the valve outlet with an alcohol swab

90. which of the following is an indication for the use of heliumO2 mixtures?
A. large airway obstruction
B. small airway obstruction
C. restrictive diseases
D. physiologic shunting

91. the time available for diffusion in the lung is mainly a function of wich of the following?
A. inspired oxygen concentration
B. level of VA
C. rate of pulmonary blood flow
D. functional residual capacity (FRC)

92. which of the following sites is closest to core body temp?
A. axillary
B. oral
C. rectal
D. forehead

93. an O2 delivery device takes separate pressurized air and O2 sources as input, then mixes these gases through a precision valve. What does this describe?
A. O2 blending system
B. reservoir system
C. air entrainment system
D. low-flow system

94. for chest compressions to be effective, in what position must the patient be placed?
A. horizontal prone, on firm surface
B. horizontal supine, on a firm surface
C. horizontal supine, on a soft surface
D. sitting with the neck fully extended

95. during single rescuer adult CPR, what is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilation?
A. 30: 1
B. 30:2
C. 5:1
D. 5:2

96. a very common application of the adjustable pressure-reducing valve is in combination with which of the following?
A. flow restrictor
B. thorpe tube flowmeter
C. bourdon gauge
D. uncompensated flowmeter

97. which of the following is NOT a hazard or complication of postural drainage therapy?
A. cardiac arrhythmias
B. increased intracranial pressure
C. acute hypotension
D. pulmonary barotraumas

98. which of the following positins is ideal for IPPB therapy?
A. semi fowler’s
B. standing
C. supine
D. prone

99. when determining a need for O2 therapy, the respiratory therapist should assess which of the following? I neurologic status II pulmonary status III cardiac status
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II, and III

100. during two-person CPR applied to an adult, what is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilation?
A. 5:2
B. 30:1
C. 5:1
D. 30:2

101. Under what condition can the principle of confidentiality be breached? Under what condition can the principle of confidentiality be breached?
A. when the welfare of the community or a vulnerable individual is at stake
B. when the health professional believes that the info is not vital
C. when a patient tells the health professional that there are no secrets
D. when a lawyer tells the health professional that the info must be revealed

102. which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of sterile gloves in the hospital setting?
A. they should be worn for all invasive procedures
B. they should not be used as a substitute for handwashing
C. the same pair can be used on numerous patients if noninvasive procedures are done
D. they may have small invisible defects that cause contamination of the user’s hands

103. Normal heart sounds are created primarily by which of the following?
A. opening of the heart valves
B. rush of blood during systole
C. closing of the heart valves
D. electrical conduction in the heart

104. which of the following acutely ill patients is LEAST likely to benefit from application of chest physical therapy?
A. patient with acute lober atelectasis
B. patient with copious amounts of secretions
C. patient with an acute exacerbation of COPD
D. patient with low V/Q due to unilateral infiltrates

105. a patient exhibits persistent stridor after a fiberoptic bronchoscopy procedure. which of the following would recommend?
A. aerosol therapy with albuterol
B. administration of a benzodiazepine
C. aerosol therapy with racemic epinephrine
D. administration a narcotic antagonist

106. to protect against obstructed or kinked tubing, simple bubble humidifiers incorporate which of the following?
A. HEPA outlet filter
B. pressure relief valve
C. automatic hygrometer
D. electronic alarm system

107. the largest percentage of carbon dioxide transported in the blood occurs as which of the following?
A. carbamino-Hb
B. carbonic acid
C. HCO3-
D. physically dissolved carbon dioxide

108. what is the minimum amount of time that blood must take for pulmonary capillary transit for equilibration of oxygen to occur across the alveolar-capillary membrane?
A. 0.15 sec
B. 0.25 sec
C. 0.35 sec
D. 0.45 sec

109. To determine the most recent medical status of a patient whom you are about to start treating, you would go to which section of the medical record?
A. progress sheet
B. nurses’ notes
C. physician’s order
D. history and physical exam

110. you start a COPD patient on a nasal O2 cannula at 2L/min/ what is the max time that should pass before assessing this patient’s PaO2 or SaO2?
A. 2 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 72 hours

111. which of the following is/are necessary for normal airway clearance? I patent airway II functional mucociliary escalator III effective cough
A. I and II
B. I II and III
C. II and III

112. which of the following does NOT increase the affinity of Hb for oxygen?
A. decreased 23DPG
B. decreased PCO2
C. increased pH
D. increased temp

113. The second heart sound is created primarily by which of the following?
A. closure of the semilunar valves
B. opening of the atrioventricular valves
C. closure of the atrioventricular valves
D. opening of the semilunar valves

114. which ethical principle obliges a respiratory therapist to uphold a patients’ right to refuse a treatment?
A. autonomy
B. veracity
C. role fidelity
D. beneficence

115. if you have to deliver O2 to a patient directly from a bedside outlet station, which of the following devices would you select?
A. thorpe tube flowmeter
B. bourdon type gauge
C. pressure-reducing valve
D. medical gas regulator

116. during properly performed external chest compression on children under 8 years or on large toddlers, how much should the sternum be compressed?
A. 0,5 inch
B. 1.0 inch
C. 1.5 inch
D. 2.0 inch

117. all of the following indicate an inability to adequately protect the airway except:
A. wheezing
B. coma
C. lack of gag reflex
D. inability to cough

118. hemoglobin’s affinity for carbon monoxide is more than ___________ times greater than oxygen
A. 20
B. 100
C. 200
D. 50

119. HIPAA was established in 1996 to set standards related to sharing confidential health history information about patients. What does the letter “P” stand for?
A. privacy
B. portability
C. patient
D. protection
E. people

120. which of the following conditions are associated with chronic production of large volumes of sputum? I bronchiectasis II pulmonary fibrosis III cystic fibrosis IV chronic bronchitis
A. I III and IV
B. II and IV
C. I II III and IV
D. III and IV

121. you have been asked to monitor a patient who has just been extubated. which of the following parameter would you monitor? I color II breath sounds III vital signs IV inspiratory force
A. I II and III
B. II and IV
C. III and IV
D. II III and IV

122. which of the following is a true statement about the cause of systemic hypertension in adult patients?
A. the cause is often unknown
B. the cause is often related to poor diet
C. the cause is often related to a lack of exercise
D. the cause is often related to sleep apnea

123. The sweat chloride level is used to diagnose which of the following disorders?
A. asthma
B. cystic fibrosis
C. hyperthyroidism
D. hepatitis

124. what is the function of the thorax?
A. facilitate digestion
B. heat humidify and filter gases
C. protect the vital organs
D. vocalization

125. which of the following terms is used to describe coughing up blood streaked sputum?
A. hematemesis
B. hemoptysis
C. hemolysis
D. hemoatelectasis

126. What device is used to reduce the pressure and control the flow of compressed medical gas?
A. flowmeter
B. reducing valve
C. bourdon gauge
D. regulator

127. If you make a mistake when charting a patient treatment, what should you do?
A. make a new entry just below the mistake
B. erase the mistake and have your supervisor countering it
C. draw a line through the mistake and write “error” above it
D. have your supervisor make the chart correction later

128. correct instruction in the technique of incentive spirometry should include which of the following?
A. use of accessory muscles
B. diaphragmatic breathing at slow to moderate flows
C. panting at volume approaching total lung capacity
D. use of accessory muscles at low inspiratory flows

129. what is the normal range of negative pressure to use when suctioning children?
A. 60 to 80 mmhg
B. 80 to 100 mmhg
C. 100 to 120 mmhg
D. 150 to 200 mmhg

130. what is the most common complication of suctioning?
A. hypoxemia
B. hypotension
C. arrhythmias
D. infection

131. all of the following are goals o fbronchial hygiene therapy except:
A. reverse the underlying disease process
B. help mobilize retained secretion
C. improve pulmonary gas exchange
D. reduce the work of breathing

132. To determine the amount of urine excreted by a patient in the last 24 hours, you would go to which of the section of the medical record?
A. vital signs sheet
B. laboratory sheet
C. nurses’ notes
D. intake and output sheet

133. all of the following techniques can be used to improve one’s listening skills except:
A. resist distractions
B. maintain composure and control emotions
C. keep an open mind
D. judge the sender’s delivery, not the content

134. When a practitioner performs a procedure that involves physical contact without the patient’s consent, it can result in what charge?
A. assault
B. negligence
C. battery
D. slander

135. what is the key difference between small compressed gas cylinders and their larger counterparts?
A. small gas cylinders do not unergo regular DOT testing
B. small gas cylinders are always filler to lower pressures
C. small gas cylinders cannot be used for anesthetic gases
D. small gas cylinders use a yoke connector

136. patients can control a flutter valves pressure by changing what?
A. their inspiratory flow
B. the angle of the device
C. their expiratory flow
D. the expired volume

137. if the total hemoglobin content (Hb + HbO2) of a sample of blood is 20 g/dl and the oxyhemoglobin (HbO2) content is 15 g/dl, what is the HbO2 saturation?
A. 17%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 83%

138. what does the presence of stridor indicate?
A. lower airway obstruction
B. increased secretions in the large airways
C. upper airway obstruction
D. bronchial spasm

139. when used to control the flow of medical gages to a patient, how is a thorpe tube classified?
A. variable orifice, constant pressure flowmeter device
B. fixed orifice, constant pressure flowmeter device
C. variable orifice, variable pressure flowmeter device
D. fixed orifice, variable pressure flowmeter device

140. what is the most common sign associated with the transient glottic edema or vocal cord inflammation that follows extubation?
A. difficulty in swallowing
B. wheezing
C. orthopnea
D. hoarseness

141. you are preparing to conduct a complex transport of a patient receiving O2, and you expect to have to alter O2 flows during the transport. Which of the following devices would best meet your needs?
A. uncompensated thorpe tube
B. flow restrictor
C. compensated thorpe tube
D. bourdon gauge

142. What disease is associated with a barrel chest?
A. emphysema
B. heart failure
C. pneumonia
D. pleural effusions

143. a patient with a tracheal airway exhibits severe respiratory distress. on quick examination, you notice the complete absence of breath sounds and no gas flowing through the airway. what is most likely the problem?
A. partial tube obstruction
B. right sided pneumothorax
C. complete tube obstruction
D. vocal cord paralysis

144. a patient receiving nasal oxygen at 3L/min complains of nasal dryness and irritation. Which of the following action would be appropriate?
A. recommending that the flow be decreased to 2L/min
B. adding a humidifier to the delivery system
C. recommmending that the flow be increased to 4L/min
D. switching to a simple mask at 3L/min

145. which of the following arteries should be palpated in pulseless adults and children older than 1 year of age?
A. brachial
B. radial
C. carotid
D. femoral

146. what is the name of the external landmark that identifies the point at which the trachea branches into the right and left mainstem bronchi?
A. angle of louis
B. cricoid cartilage
C. suprasternal notch
D. xiphoid process

147. What is the most common cause of hypothermia?
A. exposure to cold environment
B. head injury
C. stroke
D. thyroid gland dysfunction

148. What key property of He makes it useful as a therapeutic gas?
A. low solubility
B. chemical inertness
C. low cost
D. low density

149. a cooperative an alert postoperative patient taking food orally requires a small increment in FIO2, to be provided continuously. Precise FIO2 concentrations are not needed. Which of the following devices would best achieve this end?
A. simple mask
B. air-entrainment mask
C. nasal cannula
D. nonrebreathing mask

150. Which of the following is a method for communicating empathy to your patients?
A. use of touch
B. use of key words
C. use of eye contact
D. all the above


**For Part 2 of the Seminar Exam Review, Click Here.