1.  All of the following approaches are recommended to assess the knowledge gained by a patient after an education episode EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  Following a motor vehicle accident, a patient in respiratory distress is intubated to maintain airway patency. During the physical examination, you palpate asymmetrical movement of the chest during inspiration, but no crepitus is noted. Breath sounds are diminished. This is most indicative of which of the following’?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  Which of the following formula can be used to estimate a patient’s maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  You are asked to assess a 16-year-old diabetic on 4 L./min of oxygen via nasal cannula. The patient IS alert and awake and is complaining of some minor nasal discomfort. His pulse oximeter reads 84% saturation_ What action should you take?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  When properly positioned and with the cuff inflated, the mask of a laryngeal mask airway ([MA) seals off the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  Which of the following statements regarding CENTRAL cyanosis is FALSE?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  Which of the following suggest that an ABG sample may in fact contain venous blood? 1. patient has no symptoms of hypoxemia 2. failure of syringe to fill by pulsations 3. abnormally low bedside Sp02  
A.
B.
C.
D.

 

 

8.  Which of the following is the approximate total output flow delivered from a 40% air-entrainment mask operating at 12 L/min?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  In most blood gas analyzers, what media is used to calibrate the pH electrode?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  When inspecting the x-ray of a patient in ICU, you note a large area of radiolucency between the left lung border and chest wall and increased density of left lung. Which of the following is the most likely problem?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  A patient who has been in a serious automobile accident is brought to the emergency room in obvious shock. He has internal injuries. A physician asks you to administer oxygen immediately. You should institute treatment with 
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  An otherwise healthy 25 year old male patient who took an overdose of sedatives is being supported on a ventilator. Which of the following measures of total static compliance (lungs + thorax) would you expect in this patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  During a single-breath capnogram, the sharp downstroke and return to baseline that normally occurs after the end-tidal point indicates:  
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  Which of the following is the most common problem associated with the removal of an esophageal obturator airway?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  You are asked to position a patient for orotracheal intubation You should place the patient’s head
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  In reviewing the chart of a 55 year old male patient, you note the following symptoms: obesity, loud snoring and insomnia. These findings are most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  Oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airways helps restore airway patency by:  
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  To measure the amount of auto-PEEP present in a patient receiving ventilatory support, you would: 
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  The best way to routinely communicate a patient’s clinical status to the appropriate members of the health care team is by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  To minimize the risk of aspiration of glottic secretions or cord damage during removal of an oral endotracheal tube, you should
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  What maximum flow would you apply to an 8 year-old child receiving O2 therapy via a high flow nasal cannula?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  Which of the following alarm conditions indicates a circuit obstruction when delivering volume-oriented ventilatory support?
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  A volume-cycled flow generator is being used to ventilate a patient in the CMV control mode. Which of the following changes would occur if the patient’s compliance were to decrease?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  A patient is receiving ventilatory support in the CMV control mode via a volume-cycled ventilator. Changes in which of the following parameters will alter this patient’s PaCO2?   I. tidal volume II. H02 III. rate IV. flow
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  A patient’s ABG results before/after starting oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 L/min remain unchanged. Which of the following should be assessed? 1. breath sounds 2. pulse 3. patency of nasal pharynx 4. oxygen connections 
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  Which of the following is false regarding switching from an esophageal-tracheal Combitube® (ETC) to an oral endotracheal tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  Which of the following are FALSE regarding oropharyngeal airways’?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  Which of the following types of equipment processing would you recommend for a reusable external facemask?
A.
B.
C.
D.
 

29.  When inspecting the X-ray of an out-patient with nephrotic syndrome, you note a homogeneous area of increased density that obscures the left costophrenic angle Which of the following is the most likely problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30. 

The following figure is a statistical quality control plot for PCO2 measurements made by a blood gas analyzer using a control value of 40 mm Ng_ The horizontal (X) axis depicts 8-hour shifts. The vertical (Y) axis is PCO2 level, with 38 – 42 representing + 2 standard deviations_ What type of error is represented by the series of points labeled ‘B on the plot?

A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  Which of the following devices would you select to assess the output accuracy of a Bourdon gauge regulator used for 02 transport?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  Which of the following best describe the key rationale for intubating nasally rather than orally’?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  A patient has a minute volume of 7.50 L/min and is breathing at a rate of 16 breaths/min. What is his average tidal volume?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  Normally, an individual can maintain about what percent of their maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) on maximum exercise?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  A 68 year-old female patient with severe COPD has been provided with educational materials describing essential self-management activities to help her control her disease. Which of the following additional support measures would you consider recommending? 1.  counseling/behavior modification interventions 2.  telephonic follow-up and/or home health visits 3.  social services to address self-management barriers
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  Which of the following is FALSE regarding the laryngeal mask airway?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  All of the following would be essential medication history information to obtain for a patient admitted for an acute exacerbation of asthma EXCEPT:  
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  Following a myocardial infarction, a 60-year-old patient with congestive heart failure is being mechanically ventilated. The patient’s blood pressure is 95/60 mm Hg. Ventilator settings are as follows:   FIO2              0.45 Rate              12 Tidal volume      600 mL PEEP              12 cm H20 While awaiting blood gas results, you obtain an Sp02 of 78%. Which of the following actions would you take at this time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  The use of pursed-lip breathing during exhalation would be most common among which of the following patient groups?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40. 

The following figure is a statistical quality control plot for PCO2 measurements made by a blood gas analyzer using a control value of 40 mm Hg. The horizontal (X) axis depicts 8-hour shifts. The vertical (Y)axis is PCO2 level, with 38 – 42 representing +-2 standard deviations. What type of error is represented by the point labeled “A” on the plot?  

A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  A patient’s response to an interview question is initially vague or unclear. Which of the following responses on your part would be most appropriate? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  Causes of decreased or diminished breath sounds include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  Under which of the following conditions will the FIO2 of a 02 mask with reservoir bag vary? I. if the reservoir volume cannot meet inspired volume demand II if the input flow is less that the patient’s peak flow 111. if ambient air enters the system during inspiration
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  On palpating the neck region of a patient on a mechanical ventilator, you note a crackling sound and sensation. What is the most likely cause of this observation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  Which of the following pre/post test changes would indicate a clinically significant response to an aerosolized bronchodilator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  You are called to the ED to provide a bronchodilator treatment for a patient having a severe asthma attack_ When quickly confirming the written order you find it contains some prohibited notations and thus could be read as either ‘.5 U albuterol by SVN or 5 c c albuterol by SVN” The prescribing physician is busy overseeing a code You should
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  Which of the following statements would be most appropriate to use in explaining to a patient why it is necessary to cough after an aerosol treatment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  The upper limit of INPUT flow for most jet nebulizers driven by 50 psig source gas ranges from: 
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  Proper technique in the auscultatory method of measuring blood pressure includes which of the following?   1. inflate the cuff to 30 mm Hg above brachial pulse stoppage 2. place the lower cuff edge 3 inches above the antecubital fossa 3. deflate the cuff at a rate of 2 to 3 mm Hg per second 4. place bell of stethoscope over the brachial artery 
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  If the pH of a patient’s blood falls below normal: 1. the hemoglobin saturation for a given PO2 falls 2. the hemoglobin saturation for a given PO2 rises 3. the affinity of hemoglobin for O2 decreases 
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  A patient who is receiving 0.5 mL isoetharine (Bronkosol) in 3 mL of normal saline three times a day to relieve bronchospasm complains of nervousness and palpitations after therapy. You should consider recommending all of the following to the patient’s doctor EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.  If the rate of breathing increases without any change in total minute ventilation (VE constant): 
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.  A COPD patient is receiving sustained-release theophylline Adverse effects of this therapy that you should be on guard for include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  Your patient had her spleen removed 2 days ago and is still reluctant to take a deep breath. The doctor asks for your recommendation to prevent the development of atelectasis. Which of the following would you suggest? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.  A patient has a pH of T58 and a PaCO2 of 25 torr. Based on these data, what is the primary acid-base disturbance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.  The normal apical impulse (PMI) usually is identified where? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  Bronchial breath sounds heard over the periphery indicate  
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  Which of the following is the most common problem associated with the removal of an esophageal obturator airway?
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  Which of the following is the best way to avoid bright lights interfering with a pulse oximeter’s signal?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  A 55 year old patient has been smoking 1-1/2 packs of cigarettes per day for 30 years. You would quantify and record his smoking history as:  
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.  As you are fitting him with a nonrebreathing mask, a 62 YO patient in the Emergency Department complains of severe chest pain. Which of the following tests would you first recommend for this patient
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe trauma to the upper airway, including the hypopharynx and larynx. Which type of airway would you recommend for this patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  Which of the following would you recommend to provide graphic data useful in evaluating the ventilator-patient interface? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.  The gauge on an H cylinder of oxygen reads 450 psig. About how long would the contents of this cylinder last at a flow of 2 UL/min?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  The best way to avoid arterial blood gas analysis errors associated with blood metabolism is to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.  All of the following are TRUE regarding control mode ventilation EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  The best way to assure the patency of a trach button is to
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  In patients with chronic respiratory disease, pedal edema is a sign of: 
A.
B.
C.
D.
69. 

You observe the following on the bedside capriograph display of a patient receiving ventilatory support. What is your interpretation of this display data?  

A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  A physician has requested your assistance in extubating an orally intubated patient. Which of the following should be done BEFORE the tube itself is removed?  1. suction the pharynx 2. preoxygenate the patient 3. confirm cuff inflation 4. suction the ET tube
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.    A patient has a minute volume of 7.50 L/min and is breathing at a rate of 16 breaths/min. What is his average tidal volume?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.  A normal vital capacity for a female patient who is five feet two inches tall and weighs 50 kilograms would be approximately:  
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.  Which of the following endotracheal tube malfunctions could require extubation and reintubation with a new tube to allow effective positive pressure ventilation of the patient?   1. a large leak in the cuff of the tube 2, obstruction of the tube that is unrelieved by suctioning 3. separation of the pilot tube from the endotracheal tube cuff
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.  At rest, the normal tidal movement of the diaphragm is approximately:  
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.  A patient has acute respiratory acidosis. You would expect the base excess (BE) to range between:
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.  When checking for proper adult placement of an endotracheal or tracheostomy tube on chest X-ray, the distal tip of the tube should be positioned where? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.  A galvanic oxygen analyzer is being used to monitor a mechanically ventilated patient The patient is receiving 100% oxygen, and the analyzer registers 104%. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this?
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.  Patient cooperation is ESSENTIAL for effective participation in which two of the following procedures?   1. ventilator weaning 2. incentive spirometry 3. postural drainage 4. breathing retraining  
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.  A patient’s bedside spirornetry results (as compared to normal) are as follows: FVC normal FEVI decreased FEVi% decreased   What is the most likely problem’?   a_ an obstructive disorder b. poor patient effort c_ a restrictive disorder d a mixed (obstructive + restrictive) disorder
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.  While using an ICU ventilator with its optional air compressor running, you note that the low air pressure alarm suddenly sounds. Which of the following would the best initial action in this situation? 1. adjust and analyze FIO2 2. connect to a 50 psig air source 3. replace the air compressor filters 4. replace the air compressor 
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.  An adult male patient on ventilatory support has just been intubated with a 7.0 mm oral endotracheal tube equipped with a high residual volume low pressure cuff. When sealing the cuff to achieve a minimal occluding volume, you note a cuff pressure of 45 cm H20 What is the most likely problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.  All of the following cause false HIGH Sp02 readings when using a pulse oximeter EXCEPT
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.  Rule-based procedures designed to help detect, respond to and correct blood gas analyzer or hemoximeter errors over time best describe:
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.  Which of the following specialized imaging tests would be most useful in diagnosing a pulmonary emboli? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.  What maximum flow would you apply to an infant receiving 02 therapy via a high flow nasal cannula?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.  During oral intubation of an adult, the endotracheal tube should be advanced into the trachea about how far?
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.  All of the following are common causes of fluid overload (overhydration) in patients EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
88.  You design an air entrainment system which mixes air with oxygen at a fixed ratio of 1:3 (1 liter air to 3 liters oxygen). About what 02 concentration (FI02) will this device provide?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.  You hear bronchial breath sound over the patient’s right middle lobe. What condition is probably present?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.  Incentive spirometry is ordered for a female patient after abdominal surgery_ Which of the following statements would be the most appropriate initial explanation of the therapy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.  Which of the following alterations in ventilatory pattern will NOT enhance peripheral deposition of an inhaled aerosol?
A.
B.
C.
D.
92.  Which of the following humidification devices would be appropriate for a patient receiving nasal oxygen therapy at 6 Limn?
A.
B.
C.
D.
93.  The radial site is preferred for arterial puncture or cannulation because.
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.  The methylene blue test is used to confirm:
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.  The diagnostic procedure most likely to confirm the presence of bronchogenic carcinoma is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.  When using a disposable CO2 indicator confirm ET tube placement in airway, a false positive finding (misleading color change) can occur
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.  The normal gradient between the arterial PCO2 and the end-tidal PCO2 as measured by capnography (PetCO2) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.  When open to the atmosphere, a manometer calibrated in cm H2O units should read: 
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.  The methylene blue test is used to confirm:  
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.  A patient suddenly loses consciousness. Which of the following is the first procedure you should perform to maintain an open airway in this patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
101.  A doctor wants to provide full ventilatory support but use low tidal volumes and permissive hypercapnia in an ARDS patient. Which of the following modes of mechanical ventilation would you choose for this patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
102.  A patient with a tracheal airway exhibits severe respiratory distress. On quick examination you note the complete absence of breath sounds, and no gas flowing through the airway. What is the most likely problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
103.  To change the level of negative pressure delivered by a pleural drainage system, you would
A.
B.
C.
D.
104.  When testing a ventilator’s operation, the actual oxygen concentrations delivered by the device should be within what percentage of that set on its FI02 control?
A.
B.
C.
D.
105.  A patient who weighs 70 kg (154 lb) is being ventilated in the assist/control mode with an 1102 of 0.8 and 5 cm H20 PEEP_ His arterial blood gas results are below: Blood Gases pH          7.53 PaCO2       30 mm Hg HCO3        27 mEq/L BE          +1 Pa02        48 mm Hg Sa02        81% The respiratory therapist should FIRST do which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
106.  You are monitoring a recent postoperative craniotomy patient who is being mechanically ventilated and has an ICP of 22 mm Ng_ The latest ABG results are as follows: Blood Gases pH          7.35 PaCO2       47 mm Hg HCO3        25 mEq/L BE          0 Pa02        89 mm Hg Sa02        96% Based on this information, which of the following is the most acceptable action?
A.
B.
C.
D.
107.  Which of the following would deliver the most particulate water to a patient’s airway?
A.
B.
C.
D.
108.  When inspecting the X-ray of an out-patient with nephrotic syndrome, you note a homogeneous area of increased density that obscures the left costophrenic angle. Which of the following is the most likely problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
109.  A patient has a pH of 7.58 and a PaCO2 of 25 torr. Based on these data, what is the primary acid-base disturbance?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
110.  Which of the following parameters is affected when the air-mix control is changed to 100% oxygen on a pneumatically-powered IPPB device? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
111.  You hear a high-pitched sound coming from the pressure relief valve on a patient’s bubble-type humidifier. Gas can be felt coming from the valve. Which of the following could cause this problem?   1. the O2 delivery tubing is obstructed 2. the O2 flow is too high 3. the water reservoir jar lid is screwed on too tightly 4. the water reservoir jar lid is missing an O-ring
A.
B.
C.
D.


112.  A patient receiving volume-limited ventilation with a tidal volume of 600 mL and 10 cm H20 PEEP has a peak pressure of 45 cm H20 and a plateau pressure of 30 cm H20. What is her static compliance’?
A.
B.
C.
D.
113.  An apnea monitor on a premature infant indicates an abnormal decrease in respiratory rate and an abnormal increased in heart rate. What is the most likely cause of
A.
B.
C.
D.
114.  The normal apical impulse (PMI) usually is identified where?
A.
B.
C.
D.
115.  You determine that the output flow from a pneumatically powered IPPB machine operating in the air-mix mode is significantly reduced. Which of the following may be causing the problem? 1. the inlet filter is clogged 2. the high pressure hose is partially blocked 3. the ventilator is connected to air instead of oxygen 
A.
B.
C.
D.
116.  Which of the following is false regarding switching from an esophageal-tracheal Combitube (ETC) to an oral endotracheal tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
117.  A doctor orders the highest FIO2 possible for an adult patient receiving 100% O2 via a high flow nasal cannula. What flow setting would best achieve this goal? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
118.  If available in the assist/control or control modes of ventilatory support, an I:E limit should be set to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
119.  A patient rescued from a house fire is being monitored in the intensive care unit Due to suspected CO poisoning, the patient is on a nonrebreathing mask at 12 L/min. A pulse oximeter reveals an Sp02 of 99%. An arterial blood sample is obtained and sent to the laboratory for gas analysis and hemoximetry (CO-oximetry). The lab results are as follows:   Blood Gas Analysis pH    7.26 PaCO2 34 mm Hg Pa02 350 mm Hg HCO3 10 mEq/L Sa02 100% BE13 mEq/L   Hemoximetry Hb02%       79% COH1D%      19% MetH1D%     2%   Which result(s) give the best indication of the patient’s oxygenation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
120.  A patient in the emergency room exhibits signs of acute upper airway obstruction and is concurrently having severe seizures that make it impossible to open the mouth_ In this case, what would be the adjunct airway of choice?
A.
B.
C.
D.
121.  To achieve the highest O2 concentration, you would select which of the following devices?
A.
B.
C.
D.
122.  A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the IMV mode with a continuous flow. The F102 is 0.4, the set rate is 5/min. and +7 cm H20 PEEP is being applied. The manometer needle is drawn down to +1 cm H20 whenever the patient inhales. On the basis of this information, it would be appropriate to increase the
A.
B.
C.
D.
123.  Which of the following is the most common problem associated with the removal of an esophageal obturator airway? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
124.  A paralyzed patient being mechanically ventilated in the volume control mode has an abnormally low PaCO2 and high pH. Which of the following would be the best way to increase the patient’s PaCO2 without changing the minute ventilation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
125.  Which of the following would invalidate a bedside measure of vital capacity, i.e., require that the measure be ‘rejected”?   1. obtained values less than 50% of predicted 2. nonreproducibility of the measurement 3. indication of poor patient effort
A.
B.
C.
D.
126.  In the lab results section of her medical record, you note an overall WBC of 22,000 for a febrile patient who appear acutely ill and in moderate respiratory distress. Which of the following is this patient’s most likely diagnosis?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
127.  A patient’s respirations are characterized by a gradual increase and then a gradual decrease in the depth of breathing, followed by a period of apnea. This pattern is known as which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.  During the administration of an aerosol treatment, the patient’s respiratory rate drops from 15 breaths/min to 6 breaths/min. Identify this breathing pattern.
A.
B.
C.
D.
129.  The proper positioning of an endotracheal tube in an adult is confirmed by which of the following?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
130.  Which of the following would provide the best bedside assessment of the need for mechanical ventilation in a patient with Guillain-Barre syndrome? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
131.  A patient has a pH of 7.58 and a PaCO2 of 25 torr Based on these data, what is the primary acid-base disturbance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
132.  During auscultation, you hear a creaking or grating sound which increases in intensity with deep breathing, but is not affected by coughing. Which of the following conditions best ‘fits’ this finding?
A.
B.
C.
D.
133.  What is the problem with input flows greater than 10-15 L/min in an infant oxyhood?
A.
B.
C.
D.
134.  Bedside spirometry performed on a patient reveals the following: Respiratory rate = 22 Tidal volume = 360 mL Dead space = 150 mL Inspiratory capacity = 1.0 L Based on these data, what is the patient’s minute ventilation?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
135.  Spirometry before and after the administration of an aerosolized bronchodilator is used to:  
A.
B.
C.
D.
136.  You perform an arterial puncture to obtain blood for analysis of 02, CO2, and pH. What is the best way to care for the blood sample after it is obtained’?
A.
B.
C.
D.
137.  Which one of the following is NOT required on a patient’s drug prescription?
A.
B.
C.
D.
138.  Which of the following respiratory signs noted on inspection of an adult patient would be considered ABNORMAL’? 1. respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute 2. ribs higher posteriorly than laterally at end expiration 3. left side of thorax expand more than right side 4.  accessory ventilatory muscles used during quiet breathing 5. costal angle of 90 degrees increases with inspiration
A.
B.
C.
D.
139.  Which of the following endotracheal tube malfunctions could require extubation and reintubation with a new tube to allow effective positive pressure ventilation of the patient?   1. a large leak in the cuff of the tube 2_ obstruction of the tube that is unrelieved by suctioning 3_ separation of the pilot tube from the endotracheal tube cuff
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.  To avoid preanalytic errors associated with air contamination of a blood gas sample, all of the following are appropriate EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
141.  A laryngeal mask airway may be preferred over tracheal intubation in all of the following situation EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
142.  Which of the following is FALSE regarding assist/control mode ventilation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.  A patient suddenly loses consciousness. Which of the following is the first procedure you should perform to maintain an open airway in this patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
144.    Directed coughing is useful in helping maintain bronchial hygiene in all of the following patients categories EXCEPT  
A.
B.
C.
D.
145.  Which of the following will occur if you decrease the inspiratory flow setting during an IPPB treatment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
146.  On a pneumatically-powered IPPB device, switching the air-mix control to 100% oxygen will have which of the following effects on flow?
A.
B.
C.
D.
147.  To adjust the CPAPlevel generated by a simple water column, you would
A.
B.
C.
D.
148.  The effect of the expiratory grunt in a newborn who is in respiratory distress would be to 
A.
B.
C.
D.
149.  Normal lung compliance is approximately:
A.
B.
C.
D.
150.  Which of the following are acceptable changes in patient status during a traditional T-tube weaning trial?   I.    an increase in respiratory rates of 20/min II.   an increase in cardiac rate of 15/min III.  a 5 mm Hg rise in the arterial PCO2 IV.  the development of paradoxical breathing
A.
B.
C.
D.
151.  Which of the following endotracheal tube malfunctions could require extubation and reintubation with a new tube to allow effective positive pressure ventilation of the patient?   1. a large leak in the cuff of the tube 2. obstruction of the tube that is unrelieved by suctioning 3. separation of the pilot tube from the endotracheal tube cuff  
A.
B.
C.
D.
152.  While assessing the endotracheal tube cuff pressure in an intubated patient, you confirm a leak at 18 cm H20 throughout most of inspiration. You should:
A.
B.
C.
D.
153.  The following pulmonary function results are obtained for a patient   FEV1/FVC = 95% of predicted FVC = 50% of predicted   Based on these data, the patient most likely has
A.
B.
C.
D.
154.  While working in the intensive care unit, you notice the following airway pressures on a mechanically ventilated adult patient receiving 5 cm H20 PEEP:                       Plateau     Peak                   Pressure    Pressure Time        cm H20      cm H20 0900            34                44 1000            38                49 1100           44                 55 Knowing that no ventilator setting changes have been made, what is the most likely cause of these changes?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
155.  Which of the following is likely to increase the possibility of tracheal wall damage resulting from excessive endotracheal tube cuff pressures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
156.  Bedside spirometry performed on a patient reveals the following:   Respiratory rate = 22 Tidal volume = 360 mL Dead space = 150 mL Inspiratory capacity = 1.0 L   Based on these data, what is the patient’s minute ventilation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
157.  Which of the following is false regarding switching from an esophageal-tracheal Combitube® (ETC) to an oral endotracheal tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
158.  Which of the following is likely to increase the possibility of tracheal wall damage resulting from excessive endotracheal tube cuff pressures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
159.  The normal gradient between the arterial PCO2 and the end-tidal P002 as measured by capnography (PetCO2)is
A.
B.
C.
D.
160.  A patient is intubated with an appropriate size endotracheal tube and is being ventilated with a positive pressure ventilator_ During inspiration, air is heard at the mouth. Which of the following should be done?
A.
B.
C.
D.